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2018 Latest Oracle PL/SQL Developer Certified Associate 1Z0-071 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the DEPARTMENTS and EMPLOYEES tables.
1Z0-071 dumps
To retrieve data for all the employees for their EMPLOYEE_ID, FIRST_NAME, and DEPARTMENT NAME, the following SQL statement was written:
SELECT employee_id, first_name, department_name
FROM employees NATURAL JOIN departments;
The desired output is not obtained after executing the above SQL statement. What could be the reason for this?
A. The NATURAL JOIN clause is missing the USING clause.
B. The table prefix is missing for the column names in the SELECT clause.
C. The DEPARTMENTS table is not used before the EMPLOYEES table in the FROM clause.
D. The EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables have more than one column with the same column name and data type.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
View the Exhibit for the structure of the STUDENT and FACULTY tables.
1Z0-071 dumps
You need to display the faculty name followed by the number of students handled by the faculty at the base location. Examine the following two SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Only statement 1 executes successfully and gives the required result.
B. Only statement 2 executes successfully and gives the required result.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give different results.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give the same required result.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding the COUNT function? (Choose two.)
A. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows including duplicate rows and rows containing NULL value in any of the columns
B. COUNT(cust_id) returns the number of rows including rows with duplicate customer IDs and NULL value in the CUST_ID column
C. COUNT(DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULL values in the INV_AMT column
D. A SELECT statement using COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause
E. The COUNT function can be used only for CHAR, VARCHAR2 and NUMBER data types
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
Using the COUNT Function
The COUNT function has three formats:
COUNT(*)
COUNT(expr)
COUNT(DISTINCT expr)
COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table that satisfy the criteria of the SELECT statement, including duplicate rows and rows containing null values in any of the columns. If a WHERE clause is included in the SELECT statement, COUNT(*) returns the number of rows that satisfy the condition in the WHERE clause. 1Z0-071 dumps
In contrast,
COUNT(expr) returns the number of non-null values that are in the column identified by expr.
COUNT(DISTINCT expr) returns the number of unique, non-null values that are in the column identified by expr.

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about Data Manipulation Language (DML) statements?
A. AH INSERT INTO. . .VALUES. . statement can add multiple rows per execution to a table.
B. An UPDATE…SET… statement can modify multiple rows based on multiple conditions on a table.
C. A DELETE FROM ….. statement can remove rows based on only a single condition on a table.
D. An INSERT INTO…VALUES….. statement can add a single row based on multiple conditions on a table.
E. A DELETE FROM….. statement can remove multiple rows based on multiple conditions on a table.
F. An UPDATE…SET…. statement can modify multiple rows based on only a single condition on a table.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which two statements are true about sequences created in a single instance database? (Choose two.)
A. CURRVAL is used to refer to the last sequence number that has been generated
B. DELETE <sequencename> would remove a sequence from the database
C. The numbers generated by a sequence can be used only for one table
D. When the MAXVALUE limit for a sequence is reached, you can increase the MAXVALUE limit by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement
E. When a database instance shuts down abnormally, the sequence numbers that have been cached but not used would be available once again when the
database instance is restarted
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation:
Gaps in the Sequence
Although sequence generators issue sequential numbers without gaps, this action occurs independent of a commit or rollback. Therefore, if you roll back a statement containing a sequence, the number is lost.
Another event that can cause gaps in the sequence is a system crash. If the sequence caches values in memory, those values are lost if the system crashes.
Because sequences are not tied directly to tables, the same sequence can be used for multiple tables.
However, if you do so, each table can contain gaps in the sequential numbers.
Modifying a Sequence
If you reach the MAXVALUE limit for your sequence, no additional values from the sequence are allocated and you will receive an error indicating that the sequence exceeds the MAXVALUE. To continue to use the sequence, you can modify it by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement
To remove a sequence, use the DROP statement:
DROP SEQUENCE dept_deptid_seq;

QUESTION 6
You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table:
SQL>DROP TABLE products;
What is the implication of this command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. All data in the table are deleted but the table structure will remain
B. All data along with the table structure is deleted
C. All viewsand synonyms will remain but they are invalidated
D. The pending transaction in the session is committed
E. All indexes on the table will remain but they are invalidated
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
You execute the following commands:
1Z0-071 dumps
For which substitution variables are you prompted for the input?
A. None, because no input required
B. Both the substitution variables ‘hiredate’ and ‘mgr_id\
C. Only ‘hiredate’
D. Only ‘mgr_id’
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Evaluate the following two queries:
1Z0-071 dumps
Which statement is true regarding the above two queries?
A. Performance would improve query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST__CREDIT__LIMIT column.
B. There would be no change in performance.
C. Performance would degrade in query 2.
D. Performance would improve in query 2.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The BOOKS_TRANSACTIONStable exists in your database.
Examine the SQL statement:
SQL>SELECT * FROM books_transactionsORDER BY 3;
What is the outcome on execution?
A. The execution tails unless the numeral 3 in the order by clause is replaced by a column name,
B. Rows are displayed in the order that they are stored in the table only for the three rows with the lowest values in the key column.
C. Rows are displayed in the order that they are stored in the table only for the first three rows.
D. Rows are displayed sorted in ascending order of the values in the third column in the table.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table.
Which SQL statement would retrieve from the table the number of products having LIST_PRICE as NULL?
1Z0-071 dumps
A. SELECT COUNT(list_price)
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price IS NULL;
B. SELECT COUNT(list_price)
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price = NULL;
C. SELECT COUNT(NVL(list_price, 0))
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price IS NULL;
D. SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT list_price)
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price IS NULL;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The first DROP operation is performed on PRODUCTS table using the following command:
DROP TABLE products PURGE;
Then you performed the FLASHBACK operation by using the following command:
FLASHBACK TABLE products TO BEFORE DROP;
Which statement describes the outcome of the FLASHBACK command?
A. It recovers only the table structure.
B. It recovers the table structure, data, and the indexes.
C. It recovers the table structure and data but not the related indexes.
D. It is not possible to recover the table structure, data, or the related indexes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table:
Exhibit:

Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to find out the average cost for all promos in the range $0-2000 and $2000-5000 in category A.
You issue the following SQL statements:
Exhibit:

What would be the outcome? 1Z0-071 dumps
A. It generates an error because multiple conditions cannot be specified for the WHEN clause
B. It executes successfully and gives the required result
C. It generates an error because CASE cannot be used with group functions
D. It generates an error because NULL cannot be specified as a return value
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
CASE Expression
Facilitates conditional inquiries by doing the work of an IF-THEN-ELSE statement:
CASE expr WHEN comparison_expr1 THEN return_expr1 [WHEN comparison_expr2 THEN return_expr2
WHEN comparison_exprn THEN return_exprn
ELSE else_expr]
END

QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit and examine the data in ORDERS_MASTER and MONTHLYjDRDERS tables.
1Z0-071 dumps
Evaluate the following MERGE statement:
MERGE INTO orders_master o
USING monthly_orders m
ON (o.order_id = m.order_id)
WHEN MATCHED THEN
UPDATE SET o.order_total = m.order_total
DELETE WHERE (m.order_total IS NULL)
WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN
INSERT VALUES (m.order_id, m.order_total);
What would be the outcome of the above statement?
A. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1 and 2.
B. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 3.
C. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 4.
D. The ORDERS MASTER table would contain the ORDER IDs 1,2,3 and 4.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which statements are true regarding the WHERE and HAVING clauses in a SELECT statement? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The HAVING clause can be used with aggregate functions in subqueries.
B. The WHERE clause can be used to exclude rows after dividing them into groups.
C. The WHERE clause can be used to exclude rows before dividing them into groups.
D. The aggregate functions and columns used in the HAVING clause must be specified in the SELECT list of the query.
E. The WHERE and HAVING clauses can be used in the same statement only if they are applied to different columns in the table.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Examine the commands used to createDEPARTMENT_DETAILS andCOURSE_DETAILS:
1Z0-071 dumps
You want to generate a list of all department IDs along with any course IDs that may have been assigned to them.
Which SQL statement must you use?

Correct Answer: C

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Oracle 1Z0-965 exam questions, 1Z0-965 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

“ Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2017 Implementation Essentials | 1Z0-965 ” Exam 1Z0-965. Here you can get the latest free Oracle 1Z0-965 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills! Follow the link to find more information about https://www.leads4pass.com/1z0-965.html exam.

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Free Oracle 1Z0-965 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A Human Resource Representative is in the process of transferring an employee from the French Subsidiary to the US
Subsidiary and exercise the option of Global Transfer. Identify the three options for the Global Transfer process.
A. The Human Resources Representative can override the default by deselecting the assignments that are not required
to be terminated; these assignments retain their original status and the work relationship is not terminated.
B. A new work relationship in the destination legal employer is not created automatically.
C. The existing employment terms and assignments in the source work relationship are terminated and their status is
set to Inactive ?Payroll Eligible by default.
D. A new worker relationship in the destination legal employer is created automatically.
E. The Human Resource Representative cannot override the default changes.
Correct Answer: ABC
Reference https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/r13_update17b/globalcs_gs/FAWHR/FAWHR1662739.htm#FAWHR1662739

QUESTION 2
Your customer requires that the person number should not be generated if a request for new hire is not approved by the
approver.
Which method should be used?
A. Automatic Upon Final Save
B. Automatic Upon Final Submission
C. Automatic Prior to Final Save
D. Automatic Prior to Submission
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In an organization, a line manager is going on a long vacation and wants all his approval notifications to flow to his
supervisor for approval in his absence. How can he accomplish this task?
A. A system administrator always has to reassign the approval notification to the supervisor in the line manager\\’s
absence.
B. The application automatically delegates the approval to his supervisor based on the leave applied for by the line
manager.
C. He has to configure new approval routing policies.
D. A Vacation rule can be set under the Preferences section of worklist notification\\’s Human Capital Management
server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which three statements are true about Person Number? (Choose three.)
A. The Person Number Generation Method cannot be changed once a person has been entered.
B. Initial Person Number cannot be provided at enterprise level.
C. The Person Number Generation method can be changed any time.
D. Initial Person Number can be provided at enterprise level.
E. Person Numbers for contacts are generated automatically.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 5
If multiple people update a performance rating for a competency on a worker\\’s profile, what is used to provide a unique
identifier for each instance of the competency so what you can determine who provided what rating?
A. educational establishment
B. rating model
C. content subscriber
D. instance qualifier
E. content library
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about Action and Action Reasons?
A. There is always a one-to-one relationship between Action Type and Action.
B. It is mandatory to associate Actions with Action Reasons.
C. The history of effective date changes can be tracked well by using the Actions framework.
D. Terminations predictive analytics uses Actions and Reasons data to identify whether a termination is voluntary or
involuntary.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Your customer is hiring an employee and assigning a line manager to the newly hired employee. What statement is
correct?
A. The line manager search is based on the public person security access.
B. The line manager search is based on the job in which the employee is hired; only the job grade higher than the
employee job will appear in this list.
C. The line manager search is based on the position hierarchy. Therefore, if an employee is hired in a particular
position, the search will populate employees with a higher position than the newly hired employee.
D. All the employees whose employment record has the “Working as Manager” check box marked as “Yes” can appear
in the drop-down list.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
An organization has multiple legal entities that need to be registered with more than one jurisdiction. Also, legal authority
information needs to be printed on statutory reports.
As an Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud implementation consultant, which three options must you be aware of
while defining legal jurisdiction and authorities for this organization?
A. Because there are multiple registrations, at least one jurisdiction must be defined as the identifying jurisdiction.
B. When a legal entity is created, one legal reporting unit is automatically created for that legal entity with a registration.
C. Income tax jurisdiction needs to be created to report income tax to the legal authority.
D. Legal authorities are mandatory in Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud.
E. Legal authorities are defined in Enterprise Structure Configurator.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 9
As an implementation consultant, you are required to set some approvals under Manage Employment tasks as Auto
Approve.
Which two items need to be specified while defining the BPM Worklist Rule for auto-approval?
A. Enter APPROVE in the Auto Action field.
B. Set up dynamic approval rule.
C. Enter AUTO APPROVE in the Auto Action field.
D. Set Auto Action Enabled to True.
E. Select Number of Levels as 0.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
Which option represents the basis on which approval routing policies can be defined?
A. Employee Supervisor Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Job Levels, Approval Groups, Organization Hierarchy
B. Employee Supervisor Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Job Levels
C. Employee Supervisor Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Job Levels, Approval Groups
D. Employee Supervisor Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Grades, Approval Groups, Organization Hierarchy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A worker in an organization will be holding a new position because the worker holding the position has gone on
maternity leave. When the second worker is back from maternity leave, the former will be moved back to his or her old
position. His or her payroll and legal reporting will be the same even after the position changes.
Which transfer method should be used for the first movement of the said worker?
A. Global Transfer
B. Transfer
C. Temporary Assignment
D. Global Temporary Assignment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
As an implementation consultant, you are required to define a legal entity. Which three options are correct about a legal
entity?
A. A legal entity may act as a virtual organization.
B. A legal entity must comply with regulations and local jurisdictions.
C. A legal entity can be identified as a legal employer in Human Capital Management.
D. A legal entity can own assets, record sales, pay taxes, and perform transactions.
E. Legal entities are not responsible for payment of social insurance.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 13
Which three options are true about the Global Person model?
A. Person records are global, independent of legal employers, and created only once for any person.
B. Person records continue to exist even when the person has no current work relationships in the enterprise and no
current contact relationships with other workers.
C. Person records cease to exist when a person is terminated from an organization.
D. Person records hold information that is personal, such as name, date of birth, and disability information, or that may
apply to more than one work relationship, such as national ID.
E. Person records are auto-archived two years after a person is terminated from an organization.
Correct Answer: ABD

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1Z0-988 exam – An Oracle Transportation Management Cloud Service 2017 Certified Implementation Specialist has demonstrated the knowledge required to explain Oracle Transportation Management’s core functionalities and configure the User Interface. Individuals who earn this certification are able to perform Freight Payment and Data Management, configure Automation Agents and the Shipment Planning process and create Order bases and Order Releases. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.leads4pass.com/1z0-988.html exam.

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Free Oracle 1Z0-988 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which three of the following are true when you are configuring General Ledger (GL) key components? (Choose three.)
A. One can configure more than one key component per domain.
B. The key components are used in the GL lookup key.
C. The key component can be defined for shipments, order releases, and order bases.
D. The key component is a basic building block that is used to assign GL codes.
E. We can define a new key component type to be used in the key component.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 2
Which three methods can be used to convert currency rates used by Oracle Transportation Management (OTM)?
(Choose three.)
A. Write an API to bring in rates from an external source.
B. Set the value for the glog.currency.base property to your currency storage default.
C. Set the exchange rates on Rate Records in OTM.
D. Update rates manually using a CSV file.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 3
Which statement is false about the User Role?
A. User Role controls data visibility via function security (Level).
B. User Role controls data visibility via a private database (VPD).
C. You can assign multiple roles to a master role.
D. Only one role can be assigned to one User.
Correct Answer: D
You can assign one or more of these roles to a user and the user could switch between the roles as needed without
logging in and out.
Reference: https://tms.caleres.com/html/help/webhelp/en/user_management/user_role.htm

QUESTION 4
By default, OTM installs some agents at the time of installation. Identify two correct statements. (Choose two.)
A. All agents are inactive. The Administrator or other authorized persons must review and activate those they want to
run in their environment.
B. All agents are active. The Administrator or other authorized persons must review and activate those they want to run
in their environment.
C. By default, some agents are active, while others are inactive. The Administrator or other authorized persons must
review the agents and activate or deactivate appropriately.
D. OTM will install agents into domains such as PUBLIC and SERVPROV.
E. OTM will install agents into the designated “company” domain, but not into domains such as PUBLIC and
SERVPROV.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
In which part is the Tender Timeout configured?
A. On the Service Provider Header
B. On the location role
C. On the Communication and Remarks tab
D. On the contact associated to the Service Provider
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You are writing an order release agent and need to listen for an order modification event triggered by an integration
update to the order release. What is the impact to the agent process if you set the “before persist” flag on the ORDER ?
MODIFIED event?
A. OTM will not persist the new data but will perform the agent actions as long as they do not require persisting the new
data.
B. OTM stages the new data, will perform the agent actions, will not allow you to use certain actions.
C. OTM will perform the agent actions but will not persist any changes to the object.
D. OTM will persist the new data immediately after the agent is triggered and then perform the agent actions.
E. OTM stages the new data but will not perform the agent actions of the data is not persisted properly.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Identify the incorrect option about the commodity setup.
A. You can select transportation modes while defining a commodity.
B. You can link commodity with equipment types while defining a new commodity.
C. Specific temperature controls cannot be assigned while defining a commodity.
D. Incompatible commodities can be captured while defining a commodity.
Correct Answer: C
Besides linking commodities with equipment types, you can also select transportation modes for commodities, as well
as specific temperature controls. Reference:
https://tms.caleres.com/html/help/webhelp/en/planning/material_manager/create_commodity.htm

QUESTION 8
Which tender method would you use to call a Service Provider on the phone in order to notify them that you have
tendered a shipment to them?
A. None
B. Manual
C. No Contact
D. Message Center
E. Phone or Fax
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Select the three businesses objects that can be manage using the Fleet Management module. (Choose three.)
A. Fleet power units
B. Fleet equipment
C. Driver payroll
D. Driver work hours
E. Driver time off, sick time, vacations, etc.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 10
What is the difference between a BUY Shipment and a SELL Shipment?
A. BUY Shipments are tendered to third party carries, and SELL Shipments are tendered to a company\\’s private Fleet.
B. BUY Shipments are created for inbound (vendor Purchase Orders) shipments, and SELL Shipments are created for
outbound (company Sales Orders) shipments.
C. BUY Shipments are created by Planners in a Company domain for their own shipments, and SELL Shipments are
created by Planners in a 3PL COMPANY domain for their clients\\’ shipments.
D. BUY Shipments are created when you wish to purchase services, and SELL Shipments are created when you wish
to charge a customer for services.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
In which two situations is redriving used? (Choose two.)
A. To redrive the shipment from the location of the tracking event to the next stops of the shipment
B. To redrive the shipment from the first stop of the shipment to the location of the tracking event
C. To redrive the shipment if the tracking event location is a specific stop on a shipment
D. To redrive the entire shipment
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
When a new Service Provider is created, OTM automatically does which of the following?
A. OTM creates a corresponding LOCATION, with the location Role of “CARRIER”.
B. OTM sends an email or fax to the Service Provider contact, depending on the contact\\’s preferred contact method.
C. OTM assigns the default Calendar defined in the Parameter Set.
D. OTM associates the Service Provider calendar with the calendar of the CORPORATION ID identified during setup.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two statements are true about Saved query? (Choose two.)
A. Saved queries can be created from search page.
B. Saved queries cannot be SQL based.
C. Saved queries contain pre-defined search and sort parameters.
D. Saved queries are user specific, not domain specific.
Correct Answer: AC

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Oracle Database Administration I | Oracle University: https://education.oracle.com/oracle-database-administration-i/pexam_1Z0-082

[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-082 exam practice questions(1-4)

QUESTION 1
The SALES_Q1 and USERS tablespaces exist in one of your databases and TEMP is a temporary tablespace.
Segment creation is not deferred.
You execute this command: examscode 1z0-082 exam questions q1

Which three statements must be true so that the SALES user can create tables in SALES_Q1? (Choose three.)
A. The sales user must have a quota on the TEMP tablespace
B. The sales user must have a quota on the SALES_Q1 tablespace to hold the initial extends of all tables they plan to
create in their schema
C. The sales user must have been granted the CREATE SESSION privilege
D. The sales user must have their quota on the user’s tablespace removed
E. The sales user must have a quota on the SALES_Q1 tablespace to hold all the rows to be inserted into any table in
their schema
F. The sales user must have been granted the CREATE TABLE privilege
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about the DUAL table? (Choose two.)
A. It can be accessed only by the SYS user
B. It consists of a single row and single column of VARCHAR2 data type
C. It can display multiple rows but only a single column
D. It can be used to display only constants or pseudo columns
E. It can be accessed by any user who has the SELECT privilege in any schema
F. It can display multiple rows and columns
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DUAL_table

QUESTION 3
You want to apply the principle of Least Privilege in all your live databases.
One of your requirements is to revoke unnecessary privileges from all users who have them using Privilege Analysis.
Which three types of analyses can be done using the DBMS_PRIVILEGE_CAPTURE package? (Choose three.)
A. analysis of all privileges used by all users including administrative users in the database
B. analysis of all privileges used by all users but excluding administrative users in the database
C. analysis of privileges that a user has on their own schema objects that they did not use
D. analysis of privileges that a user has on their own schema objects that they did use
E. analysis of privileges granted directly to a role that is then used by a user who has been granted that role
F. analysis of privileges granted indirectly to a role that is then used by a user who has been granted that role
Correct Answer: ACF
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ARPLS/d_priv_prof.htm#ARPLS74328

QUESTION 4
Examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table: examscode 1z0-082 exam questions q4

For customers whose income level has a value, you want to display the first name and due amount as 5% of their credit
limit. Customers whose due amount is null should not be displayed.
Which query should be used?
A. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers WHERE cust_income_level
IS NOT NULL AND due_amount IS NOT NULL;
B. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers WHERE cust_income_level
!= NULL AND cust_credit_level !=NULL;
C. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers WHERE cust_income_level
NULL AND due_amount NULL;
D. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers WHERE cust_income_level
!= NULL AND due_amount != NULL;
E. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers WHERE cust_income_level
IS NOT NULL AND cust_credit_limit IS NOT NULL;
Correct Answer: E

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Latest Oracle 1Z0-532 exam List

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Oracle Hyperion Financial Management 11 Essentials 1Z0-532：https://education.oracle.com/oracle-hyperion-financial-management-11-essentials/pexam_1Z0-532

[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-532 exam practice questions (1-4)

QUESTION 1
Identify three valid application settings. (Choose three.)
A. MaxNumDocAttachments
B. UseSecurityForEntities
C. UseSecurityForValue
D. Va1idationAccount
E. SupportSubmissionPhaseforEntity
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Identify the two true statements about rule types in FM. (Choose two.)
A. The Dynamic rule type allows you to calculate both parent and base accounts.
B. The input rule type prevents users from entering data into specific cells or slices of cells using Hs.No input.
C. Calculate, Dynamic, Allocation, Input, No Input, Translate, Consolidate, Transactions, and Equity pickup are all valid
rule types.
D. If you need to calculate Gross Margin %, use the Translate rule type.
E. Calculation rules are run only with FM specific calculation commands in Financial Management; no general VB
commands.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
A custom function in rules is useful for:
A. Organizing rules into subsets of code
B. Controlling the ending of an If/Then
C. Writing code that will be repeated in multiple places
D. Defining conjunctions to be used along with variables
E. Custom functions are not possible in FM,
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Given the following syntax in a business rule: examscode 1z0-532 exam questions q4

Identify the subroutine.
A. Calculate ()
B. strview
C. Hs.Exp
D. DIFFERENCE
E. Hs.SCENARIO.DEFAULT VIEW( ” “)
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/HFMAD/ch12s01s03s04.html

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Latest Oracle 1Z0-808 exam List

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Java SE 8 Programmer I | Oracle University：https://education.oracle.com/java-se-8-programmer-i/pexam_1Z0-808

[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-808 exam practice questions (1-4)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following exception will be thrown due to the statement given here?
int array[] = new int[-2];
A. NullPointerException
B. NegativeArraySizeException
C. ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException
D. IndexOutOfBoundsException
E. This statement does not cause an exception.
Correct Answer: B
In a given statement we can see that, we have passed negative value for creating int array, which results in a
NegativeArraySize Exception. Hence option B is correct. Option A is incorrect as it is thrown when an application
attempts to use null in a case where an object is required. Option D is incorrect as IndexOutOfBoundsException threw
to indicate that an index of some sort (such as to an array, to a string, or to a vector) is out of range. REFERENCE
rhttpy/docs.oracle.com/iavase/S/docs/api/java/lang/NegativeArraySizeException.html

QUESTION 2
Given: public class ColorTest {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String[] colors = {“red”, “blue”,”green”,”yellow”,”maroon”,”cyan”};
int count = 0;
for (String c : colors) {
if (count >= 4) {
break;
}
else {
continue;
}
if (c.length() >= 4) {
colors[count] = c.substring(0,3);
}
count++;
}
System.out.println(colors[count]);
}
}
What is the result?
A. Yellow
B. Maroon
C. Compilation fails
D. A StringIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The line, if (c.length() >= 4) {, is never reached. This causes a compilation error.
Note: The continue statement skips the current iteration of a for, while, or do-while loop. An unlabeled break statement
terminates the innermost switch, for, while, or do-while statement, but a labeled break terminates an outer statement.

QUESTION 3
Given: examscode 1z0-808 exam questions q3

What is the result?
A. int main 1
B. Object main 1
C. String main 1
D. Compilation fails
E. An exception is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Given: And given the commands: examscode 1z0-808 exam questions q4

What is the result?
A. TRUE null
B. true false
C. false false
D. true true
E. A ClassCastException is thrown at runtime.
Correct Answer: D

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[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-813 exam practice questions (1-4)

QUESTION 1
Given the code fragment: examscode 1z0-813 exam questions q1

If exceptions occur when closing the FileWriter object and when retrieving the JString class object, which exception
the object is propagated up to the caller of the process file method?
A. java.lang.Exception
B. java.io.IOException
C. java.lang.ClassNotFoundException
D. java.lang.NoSuchClassException
Correct Answer: C
ClassNotFoundException is thrown when an application tries to load in a class through its string name using:
*
The forName method in class Class.
*
The findSystemClass method in class ClassLoader .
*
The loadClass method in class ClassLoader.
but no definition for the class with the specified name could be found.
References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/lang/ClassNotFoundException.html

QUESTION 2
Given the code fragments: examscode 1z0-813 exam questions q2

What is the result?
A. A compilation error occurs at line n2.
B. The program prints Run… and throws an exception.
C. Run… Call…
D. A compilation error occurs at line n1.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Given: examscode 1z0-813 exam questions q3

Which result is possible?
A. Compilation fails.
B. L1 L2 L3
C. L2 L3
D. L1 L3
E. L3
Correct Answer: B
The Runnable interface should be implemented by any class whose instances are intended to be executed by a thread.
The class must define a method of no arguments called run. This interface is designed to provide a common protocol for
objects that wish to execute code while they are active.
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/lang/Runnable.html

QUESTION 4
Given the fragment: examscode 1z0-813 exam questions q4

Which code fragment, when inserted at line n1, enables the code to print ABCD?
A. String str = sList.stream().reduce(“”,(s1, s2) -> s1.concat(s2));
B. String str = sList.stream().reduce(“A”,(s1, s2) -> s1.concat(s2));
C. String str = sList.stream().reduce((s1, s2) -> s1.concat(s2));
D. String str = sList.stream().reduce(“A”,String::concat);
Correct Answer: A
The java.util.Arrays.asList(T… a) returns a fixed-size list backed by the specified array.
Note: Use the following import statements to be able to run the code.
import java.util.Arrays;
import java.util.List;
Incorrect Answers:
B, D: Output is AABCD
Reference: https://www.tutorialspoint.com/java/util/arrays_aslist.htm

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[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-815 exam practice questions (1-4)

QUESTION 1
Given: examscode 1z0-815 exam questions q1

What is the type of x?
A. char
B. List
C. String
D. List
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Given the code fragment: examscode 1z0-815 exam questions q2

What is the output?
A. The compilation fails.
B. [-1, -2, -3]
C. [-3, -2, -1]
D. A runtime exception is thrown.
Correct Answer: A

examscode 1z0-815 exam questions q2-1

QUESTION 3
Given the formula to calculate a monthly mortgage payment: examscode 1z0-815 exam questions q3

How can you code the formula?
A. m = p * (r * Math.pow(1 + r, n) / (Math.pow(1 + r, n) – 1));
B. m = p * ((r * Math.pow(1 + r, n) / (Math.pow(1 + r, n)) – 1)); r * Math.pow(1 + r, n) / Math.pow(1 + r, n) – 1;
C. m = p *
D. m = p * (r * Math.pow(1 + r, n) / Math.pow(1 + r, n) – 1);
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Given: What is the result? examscode 1z0-815 exam questions q4

A. Working Unknown
B. Unknown
C. Tuesday Unknown
D. The compilation fails.
E. Tuesday
F. Working
Correct Answer: B

examscode 1z0-815 exam questions q4-1

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MySQL 5.7 Database Administrator | Oracle University：https://education.oracle.com/mysql-57-database-administrator/pexam_1Z0-888

[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-888 exam practice questions (1-4)

QUESTION 1
Consider these global status variables: Which two conclusions can be made from the output? (Choose two.) examscode 1z0-888 exam questions q1

A. There are 140 Performance Schema threads at the time of the output.
B. There are 510 connections to MySQL at the time of the output.
C. The thread cache has been configured with thread_cache_size set to at least 6.
D. There are more connections being idle than executing queries.
E. All max_connections were in use at 2018-03-22 14:54:06
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which three allocate memory per thread in MySQL? (Choose three.)
A. query cache
B. thread cache
C. read buffer
D. internal temporary table
E. sort buffer
F. InnoDB buffer pool instance
Correct Answer: CEF
Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.6/en/memory-use.html

QUESTION 3
Is it true that binary backups always take less space than text backups?
A. Yes, because binary backups only contain data, and not statements required to insert data into the tables.
B. No, because text backups can have optimizations, which make them smaller, such as updating many rows at once.
C. No, because if InnoDB tables contain many empty pages, they could take more space than the INSERT statements.
D. Yes, because even if InnoDB tables contain many empty pages, text backups have empty INSERT statements for
them.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have the following in your my.cnf configuration file:
[mysqld] default_authentication_plugin=sha256_password
You want to create a new user who will be connecting from the IP address 192.0.2.10, and you want to use the
authentication plug-in that implements SHA-256 hashing for user account passwords. Which two statements would
create a user named Webdesign for this IP address with the password of imbatman using a SHA_256 password hash?
(Choose two.)
A. CREATE USER `webdesign\\’@\\’192.0.2.10\\’ IDENTIFIED AS sha256_user WITH sha256_password `imbatman\\’;
B. CREATE USER `webdesign\\’@\\’192.0.2.10\\’ IDENTIFIED BY `iambatman\\’;
C. CREATE USER `webdesign\\’@\\’192.0.2.10\\’ IDENTIFIED WITH sha256_password BY `imbatman\\’;
D. CREATE USER WITH sha256_password `sha256_user\\’@\\’192.0.2.10\\’ IDENTIFIED AS `webdesign\\’ USING
`imbatman\\’;
E. CREATE USER `webdesign\\’@\\’192.0.2.10\\’ WITH mysql_native_password USING SHA265 BY `imbatman\\’;
F. CREATE USER `webdesign\\’@\\’192.0.2.10\\’ IDENTIFIED BY SHA265 AS `imbatman\\’;
Correct Answer: BF
Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/8.0/en/sha256-pluggable-authentication.html

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[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-1068 exam practice questions (1-4)

QUESTION 1
When configuring sites, you have two properties related to price groups: the default price group and additional price
groups. Consider the following scenario:
Site US has the US Dollar price group set as its default price group.
Site Canada has the Canadian Dollar price group as its default price group but needs a second price group for the US dollars.
It can either share the US Dollar price group with Site US or have a separate US Dollars2 price group.
Under what condition should Site Canada use the separate US Dollars2 as its additional price group?
A. The two countries have different sales tax rate calculations
B. Reports in Oracle Business Intelligence Enterprise Edition need to separate sales totals in US dollars by site
C. Site Canada has two languages and two currencies and therefore needs dedicated price groups to accurately
display prices
D. US dollar prices differ between Site US and Site Canada
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An organization has implemented loyalty points as a payment currency by creating a payment gateway extension with
loyalty points as one of the payment method types and configuring the Custom Currency Payment webhook. What
additional step does the organization need to do to add loyalty points as a payment option on the Payments Method
widget?
A. Create a custom widget extension called Loyalty Payment and add it to the checkout layout
B. Create a new checkout layout with custom widgets for payment
C. Nothing. The Payments Method widget already includes loyalty points as a payment option
D. Add the baseline Loyalty Payment widget to the checkout layout on the Design page
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E91846_01/Cloud.12-17/ExtendingCC/html/s1907useloyaltywidgets01.html

QUESTION 3
You need to develop an integration with an analytics platform that tracks shopper activity across all Commerce Cloud
pages and provides its own JavaScript library. Which statement describes how you can implement this use case in
Commerce Cloud?
A. Create a custom non-global widget that includes the analytics JavaScript library and upload to Commerce Cloud as a
Storefront extension which will automatically apply to all layouts.
B. Create a custom global widget with a display template that includes an inline script reference to the analytics
JavaScript library and upload to Commerce Cloud as a Storefront extension.
C. On the “Application-Level JavaScript” tab on the Settings Page, add the URL for the analytics JavaScript library so
that it will automatically apply to all layouts.
D. Create a custom global widget that includes the analytics JavaScript library and uploads to Commerce Cloud as a
Storefront extension.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What are two reasons to use the CC-Storage library to save data objects in local storage? (Choose two.)
A. to support browsers using private browsing mode
B. to support Firefox browsers only
C. to support Chrome browsers only
D. to support iOS devices using Safari
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.
The job belongs to a scheduler job class and window.
Which two actions would reduce the job’s elapsed time?
A. Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job’s relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job’s job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
D. Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
E. Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F. Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable database? 1Z0-062 pdf
A. All administration tasks must be done to a specific pluggable database.
B. The pluggable databases increase patching time.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
E. Pluggable databases are only used for database consolidation.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as follows:

After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero. 1Z0-062 dumps
What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?
A. Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
B. Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C. Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
D. Flush the shared pool.
E. Restart the database instance.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
You upgrade your Oracle database in a multiprocessor environment. As a recommended you execute the following script:
SQL > @utlrp.sql
Which two actions does the script perform?
A. Parallel compilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
B. Sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
C. Parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
D. Sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
E. Parallel recompilation of Java code
F. Sequential recompilation of Java code
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know which change caused this performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use?
A. Compare Period ADDM report
B. AWR Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You conned using SQL Plus to the root container of a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privilege.The CDB has several pluggable databases (PDBs) open in the read/write mode. 1Z0-062 dumps
There are ongoing transactions in both the CDB and PDBs.
What happens alter issuing the SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL statement?
A. The shutdown proceeds immediately. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the PDBs are either committed or rolled hack.
B. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the CDB are either committed or rolled back.
C. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in both the CDB and PDBs are either committed or rolled back.
D. The statement results in an error because there are open PDBs.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are about to plug a multi-terabyte non-CDB into an existing multitenant container database (CDB).
The characteristics of the non-CDB are as follows:
Version: Oracle Database 11g Release 2 (11.2.0.2.0) 64-bit
Character set: AL32UTF8
National character set: AL16UTF16
O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit
The characteristics of the CDB are as follows:
Version: Oracle Database 12c Release 1 64-bit
Character Set: AL32UTF8
National character set: AL16UTF16
O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit
Which technique should you use to minimize down time while plugging this non-CDB into the CDB?
A. Transportable database
B. Transportable tablespace
C. Data Pump full export/import
D. The DBMS_PDB package
E. RMAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running. You stopped the wrong listener LISTENER by issuing the following command:
1snrctl > STOP 1Z0-062 pdf
What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?
A. They are able to perform only queries.
B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You execute the following commands to audit database activities:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRIAL=DB, EXTENDED SCOPE=SPFILE; SQL > AUDIT SELECT
TABLE, INSERT TABLE, DELETE TABLE BY JOHN By SESSION WHENEVER SUCCESSFUL;
Which statement is true about the audit record that generated when auditing after instance restarts?
A. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command on a table, and contains the SQL text for the SQL Statements.
B. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
C. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
D. One audit record is created for the whole session if JOHN successfully executes a select command, and contains the SQL text and bind variables used.
E. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command on a table, and contains the execution plan, SQL text, and bind variables used.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle database and you want to know which change has made this performance difference.
You generate the Compare Period Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report to further investigation. 1Z0-062 dumps
Which three findings would you get from the report?
A. It detects any configuration change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
B. It identifies any workload change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
C. It detects the top wait events causing performance degradation.
D. It shows the resource usage for CPU, memory, and I/O in both time periods.
E. It shows the difference in the size of memory pools in both time periods.
F. It gives information about statistics collection in both time periods.
Correct Answer: ABD

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June 21, 2017 by admin Oracle

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