New CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 free exam materials

The New CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 exam materials are the latest updated actual exam questions in 2024. It currently has 427 exam questions and answers! The most important thing is that candidates can get the 12 latest free exam materials at ExamsCode.

Since the CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 certification is such a broad subject (and is constantly being updated) you can download the cs0-003 exam materials with both practice formats as PDF and VCE mock exams: /cs0-003.html
(It solves the problem of constant updating of CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 and ensures real-time effectiveness.)

What is CompTIA CySA+?

Starting from June 2023, the CompTIA CySA+ certification exam code will be changed from CS0-002 to CS0-003. Each CompTIA certification exam will update the exam code three years after its release and will make new upgrades.

CompTIA CySA+ Cybersecurity Analyst is an IT staff certification that applies behavioral analysis to networks and devices to prevent, detect, and respond to cybersecurity threats through continuous security monitoring.

CompTIA CySA+ is CompTIA’s only mid-level, high-stakes cybersecurity analyst certification with hands-on, performance-based questions and multiple-choice questions. CySA+ not only focuses on the candidate’s ability to proactively capture monitoring and respond to network traffic findings, but also emphasizes software and application security, automation, threat hunting, and IT compliance, which impact the day-to-day work of a security analyst.

Covering the latest core security analyst skills and upcoming job skills used by Threat Intelligence Analysts, Application Security Analysts, Compliance Analysts, Incident Responders/Handlers, and Threat Hunters, CySA+ brings the inside of Countering Threat Intelligence and new technology Security Operations Centers (SOC) for external threats.

comptia cs0-003

CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 exam materials list

Here are the new CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 exam materials we share for free:

1. 12 latest exam questions
2.Best answer
3.Combining pictures and text with practice questions
4.Exam question analysis and answer explanations


An analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident. The analyst has isolated the vulnerability and is actively removing it from the system. Which of the following steps of the process does this describe?

A. Eradication

B. Recovery

C. Containment

D. Preparation

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

Eradication is a step in the incident response process that involves removing any traces or remnants of the incident from the affected systems or networks, such as malware, backdoors, compromised accounts, or malicious files.

Eradication also involves restoring the systems or networks to their normal or secure state, as well as verifying that the incident is eliminated and cannot recur. In this case, the analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident by isolating the vulnerability and actively removing it from the system. This describes the eradication step of the incident response process.


A security analyst found the following entry in a server log:

comptia cs0-003 exam materials questions 2

The analyst executed netstat and received the following output:

comptia cs0-003 exam materials questions 2-1

Which of the following lines in the output confirms this was successfully executed by the server?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

F. 6

G. 7

Correct Answer: E


An international company is implementing a marketing campaign for a new product and needs a security analyst to perform a threat-hunting process to identify possible threat actors. Which of the following should be the analyst\’s primary focus?

A. Hacktivists

B. Organized crime

C. Nation-states

D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: B


A technician identifies a vulnerability on a server and applies a software patch. Which of the following should be the next step in the remediation process?

A. Testing

B. Implementation

C. Validation

D. Rollback

Correct Answer: C

Analysis and explanation

The next step in the remediation process after applying a software patch is validation. Validation is a process that involves verifying that the patch has been successfully applied, that it has fixed the vulnerability, and that it has not caused any adverse effects on the system or application functionality or performance. Validation can be done using various methods, such as scanning, testing, monitoring, or auditing.


Legacy medical equipment, which contains sensitive data, cannot be patched. Which of the following is the best solution to improve the equipment\’s security posture?

A. Move the legacy systems behind a WAR

B. Implement an air gap for the legacy systems.

C. Place the legacy systems in the perimeter network.

D. Implement a VPN between the legacy systems and the local network.

Correct Answer: B

Analysis and explanation

Implementing an air gap for the legacy systems is the best solution to improve their security posture. An air gap is a physical separation of a system or network from any other system or network that may pose a threat.

An air gap can prevent any unauthorized access or data transfer between the isolated system or network and the external environment.

Implementing an air gap for legacy systems can help protect them from being exploited by attackers who may take advantage of their unpatched vulnerabilities.


Which of the following will most likely ensure that mission-critical services are available in the event of an incident?

A. Business continuity plan

B. Vulnerability management plan

C. Disaster recovery plan

D. Asset management plan

Correct Answer: C


Security awareness and compliance programs are most effective at reducing the likelihood and impact of attacks from:

A. advanced persistent threats.

B. corporate spies.

C. hacktivists.

D. insider threats.

Correct Answer: D


A company is aiming to test a new incident response plan. The management team has made it clear that the initial test should have no impact on the environment. The company has limited resources to support testing. Which of the following exercises would be the best approach?

A. Tabletop scenarios

B. Capture the flag

C. Red team vs. blue team

D. Unknown-environment penetration test

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

A tabletop scenario is an informal, discussion-based session in which a team discusses their roles and responses during an emergency, walking through one or more example scenarios.

A tabletop scenario is the best approach for a company that wants to test a new incident response plan without impacting the environment or using many resources. A tabletop scenario can help the company identify strengths and weaknesses in its plan, clarify roles and responsibilities, and improve communication and coordination among team members.

The other options are more intensive and disruptive exercises that involve simulating a real incident or attack. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 16;


A zero-day command injection vulnerability was published. A security administrator is analyzing the following logs for evidence of adversaries attempting to exploit the vulnerability:

comptia cs0-003 exam materials questions 9

Which of the following log entries provides evidence of the attempted exploit?

A. Log entry 1

B. Log entry 2

C. Log entry 3

D. Log entry 4

Correct Answer: A


During an extended holiday break, a company suffered a security incident. This information was properly relayed to appropriate personnel in a timely manner and the server was up to date and configured with appropriate auditing and logging. The Chief Information Security Officer wants to find out precisely what happened. Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?

A. Clone the virtual server for forensic analysis

B. Log in to the affected server and begin analysis of the logs

C. Restore from the last-known-good backup to confirm there was no loss of connectivity

D. Shut down the affected server immediately

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

The first action that the analyst should take in this case is to clone the virtual server for forensic analysis. Cloning the
virtual server involves creating an exact” state at a specific point in time. Cloning the virtual server can help preserve
and protect any evidence or information related to the security incident, as well as prevent any tampering,
contamination, or destruction of evidence. Cloning the virtual server can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and
investigate the incident without affecting the original server or its operations.


Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)

A. Lessons learned

B. Service-level agreement

C. Playbook

D. Affected hosts

E. Risk score

F. Education plan

Correct Answer: DE

Analysis and explanation

A vulnerability scan report should include information about the affected hosts, such as their IP addresses, hostnames,
operating systems, and services. It should also include a risk score for each vulnerability, which indicates the severity
and potential impact of the vulnerability on the host and the organization. Official


Which of the following is the best way to begin preparation for a report titled “What We Learned” regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach?

A. Determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for

B. Include references and sources of information on the first page

C. Include a table of contents outlining the entire report

D. Decide on the color scheme that will effectively communicate the metrics

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

The best way to begin preparation” regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach is to determine the
sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for. The sophistication of the audience refers to their level of
technical knowledge, understanding, or interest in cybersecurity topics. Determining the sophistication of the audience
can help tailor the report content, language, tone, and format to suit their needs and expectations. For example, a report
for executive management may be more concise, high-level, and business-oriented than a report for technical staff or peers.

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Newly updated 350-401 dumps can help candidates get better

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Why choose CCNP Enterprise 350-401 dumps?

350-401 dumps help you successfully pass the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) certification exam to configure, troubleshoot, and manage the networks of the world’s largest companies.

Of course, candidates still need to go through the second step, choose any one of the CCNP Enterprise centralized examinations, this is the 1+1 rule of Cisco CCNP Enterprise certification, and candidates must know.

Do you want to be a leader in enterprise wireless technology and enterprise infrastructure technology?

Your first step is to pass the qualifying exam: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR 350-401), Then take the lab exam: CCIE Enterprise Wireless v1.0.

So candidates wanting to enter the field first need to pass the 350-401 ENCOR exam, download the newly updated 350-401 dumps with PDF and VCE study tools: (1061 Q&A), Help candidates get better.

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[Update 2023]Free download of the new 350-401 PDF exam questions and answers:

Read the free 350-401 dumps exam questions and answers online:

FromNumber of exam questionsAssociated certificationUpdate time
Lead4Pass15CCNP Enterprise, CCDAJune 20, 2023
New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables OSPF for area 0 interfaces to establish adjacency with a neighboring router with the same VRF?

ip vrf CCNP

rd 1:1 interface Ethernet1

ip vrf forwarding CCNP

ip address! interface Ethernet2

ip vrf forwarding CCNP

ip address 255.2555.255.252

A. router ospf 1 vrf CCNP network area 0 network area 0

B. router ospf 1 interface Ethernet1 ip ospf 1 area interface Ethernet2 ip ospf 1 area

C. router ospf 1 vrf CCNP interface Ethernet1 ip ospf 1 area interface Ethernet2 ip ospf 1 area

D. router ospf 1 vrf CCNP network area 0

Correct Answer: A

New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 2

Running the script causes the output in the exhibit. What should be the first line of the script?

A. from client import manager

B. import manager

C. from client import *

D. client manager import

Correct Answer: A

Multiple examples are shown using “from client import manager” and then using manager. connect

New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 7

A network engineer must be notified when a user switches to configuration mode. Which script should be applied to receive an SNMP trap and a critical-level log message?

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 3-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

New Question 4:

The Gig0/0 interface of two routers is directly connected with a 1G Ethernet link. Which configuration must be applied to the interface of both routers to establish an OSPF adjacency without maintaining a DR/BDR relationship?

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 4

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

New Question 5:

How does Cisco TrustSec enable more flexible access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?

A. uses flexible NetFlow

B. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint

C. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition

D. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address

Correct Answer: D

The Cisco TrustSec solution simplifies the provisioning and management of network access control through the use of software-defined segmentation to classify network traffic and enforce policies for more flexible access controls. Traffic classification is based on endpoint identity, not IP address, enabling policy change without network redesign.


New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure static NAT on R1 to allow users HTTP access to the web server on TCP port 80. The web server must be reachable through ISP 1 and ISP 2. Which command set should be applied to R1 to fulfill these requirements?

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 6

A. ip nat inside source static tcp 80 80 extendable ip nat inside source static tcp 80 80 extendable

B. ip nat inside source static tcp 80 80 ip nat inside source static tcp 80 80

C. ip nat inside source static tcp 80 80 ip nat inside source static tcp 8080 8080

D. ip nat inside source static tcp 80 80 no-alias ip nat inside source static tcp 80 80 no-alias

Correct Answer: A

the “extendable” keyword should be added if the same Inside Local is mapped to different Inside Global Addresses (the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the outside network). An example of this case is when you have two connections to the Internet on two ISPs for redundancy. So you will need to map two Inside Global IP addresses into one inside local IP address.

New Question 7:


BGP connectivity exists between Headquarters and both remote sites; however, Remote Site 1 cannot communicate with Remote Site 2. Configure BGP according to the topology to goals:


Configure R1 and R3 under the BGP process to provide reachability between Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2. No configuration changes are permitted on R2.


Ensure that the /32 networks at Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2 can ping each other.

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 7


New 350-401 dumps exam questions 7-1
New 350-401 dumps exam questions 7-2


New 350-401 dumps exam questions 7-3
New 350-401 dumps exam questions 7-4

A. See the solution below in Explanation-

B. Place Holder

C. Place Holder

D. Place Holder

Correct Answer: A


On R1:

R1(config)#router bgp 123

R1(config-router)#address-family ipv4

R1(config-router-af)#neighbor allowas-in

On R3:

R3(config)#router bgp 123

R3(config-router)# address-family ipv4

R3(config-router-af)#neighbor allowas-in VERIFICATION:

R3#sh ip route bgp

Gateway of last resort is not set is subnetted, 1 subnets

B [20/0] via, 00:01:17 is subnetted, 1 subnets

B [20/0] via, 00:05:06 is subnetted, 1 subnets

B [20/0] via, 00:01:17

Test Ping from R3 to R1:


Type escape sequence to abort.

Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to, timeout is 2 seconds:


R3#ping source lo0

Type escape sequence to abort.

Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to, timeout is 2 seconds:

Packet sent with a source address of


Success rate is 100 percent (5/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 1/1/1 ms

New Question 8:

Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy?

A. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern \’UP\’ action 1.0 gets \’logging directly to console\’

B. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern \’UP\’ action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg \’log directly to console\’

C. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern \’UP\’ action 1.0 puts \’logging directly to console\’

D. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern \’UP\’ action 1.0 string \’logging directly to console\’

Correct Answer: C

“Writing Input to the Active Console When a synchronous policy is triggered, the related console is stored in the publish information specification. The policy director will query this information in an event_reqinfo call, and store the given console information for use by the action puts command.

The action puts command will write the string to the active console. A new line will be displayed unless the nonewline keyword is specified. The output from the action puts a command for a synchronous applet is displayed directly to the console, bypassing the system logger. The output of the action puts command for an asynchronous applet is directed to the system logger.”

New Question 9:

Which network devices secure API platform?

A. next-generation intrusion detection systems

B. Layer 3 transit network devices

C. content switches

D. web application firewalls

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 10

An engineer must configure and validate a CoPP policy that allows the network management server to monitor router R1 via SNMP while protecting the control plane. Which two commands or command sets must be used? (Choose two.)

A. access-list 150 permit udp host eq snmp access-list 150 permit udp eq snmp host class-map match-all CoPP-management match access-group 150 policy-map CoPP-policy

class CoPP-management

police 8000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit

violate-action drop


Service-policy input CoPP-policy

B. show ip interface brief

C. show quality-of-service-profile

D. access-list 150 permit udp host eq snmp class-map match-all CoPP-management match access-group 150 policy-map CoPP-policy class CoPP-management police 8000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit violate-action transmit control-plane Service-policy input CoPP-policy

E. show policy-map control-plane

Correct Answer: DE

A option has this ACL 150: access-list 150 permit udp host eq snmp access-list 150 permit udp eq snmp host But D option only: access-list 150 permit udp host eq snmp A option has a violation-action drop, but D option has a violation-action transmit the SNMP traffic will be never dropped

New Question 11:

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless network, which device is used as an entry and exit point in and out of the fabric?

A. fabric edge node

B. control plane node

C. fabric border node

D. fabric access points

Correct Answer: D

New Question 12:

In a Cisco VXLAN based network, which of the following best describes the main function of a VXLAN Tunnel Endpoint (VTEP)?

A. A device that performs VXLAN encapsulation and decapsulation.

B. It is a 24 bit segment ID that defines the broadcast domain.

C. It is the Logical interface where the encapsulation and de-encapsulation occurs.

D. It is a device that performs tunneling using GRE.

Correct Answer: A

VTEP (Virtual Tunnel Endpoint) – This is the device that does the encapsulation and de-encapsulation. reference:

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 13

A. {[{\’First Name\’: \’Johnny\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Table\’, \’Hobbies\’: [\’Running\’, \’Video games\’]}, {\’First Name\’: \’Billy\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Smith\’, \’Hobbies\’: [\’Napping\’, \’Reading\’]}]}

B. {\’Person\’: [{\’First Name\’: \’Johnny\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Table\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Running\’, \’Video games\’}, {\’First Name\’: \’Billy\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Smith\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Napping\’, \’Reading\’}]}

C. {[{\’First Name\’: \’Johnny\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Table\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Running\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Video games\’}, {\’First Name\’: \’Billy\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Smith\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Napping\’, \’Reading\’}]}

D. {\’Person\’: [{\’First Name\’: \’Johnny\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Table\’, \’Hobbies\’: [\’Running\’, \’Video games\’]}, {\’First Name\’: \’Billy\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Smith\’, \’Hobbies\’: [\’Napping\’, \’Reading\’]}]}

Correct Answer: D





‘First Name’: ‘Johnny’,

‘Last Name’: ‘Table’,

‘Hobbies’: [‘Running’, ‘Video games’]



‘First Name’: ‘Billy’,

‘Last Name’: ‘Smith’,

‘Hobbies’: [‘Napping’, ‘Reading’]




New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 14

Why does OSPF fail to establish an adjacency between R1 and R2?

A. authentication mismatch

B. interface MTU mismatch

C. area mismatch

D. timers mismatch

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

What does the statement print(format(0.8, \’.0%\’)) display?

A. 80%

B. 8%

C. .08%

D. 8.8%

Correct Answer: B

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
13Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)Lead4PassNov 10, 2022Oct 08, 2022

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient and denies access from all other SSH clients\’?

new 350-401 exam questions 1
new 350-401 exam questions 1-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: B


Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two.)

A. Increase minimum mandatory data rate

B. Reduce AP transmit power

C. Disable 2.4 GHz and use only 5 GHz.

D. Enable Fastlane.

E. Reduce channel width from 40 MHz to 20 MHz

Correct Answer: AB


Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 exam questions 3

What are two results of the NAT configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Packets with a destination of are translated to or .2. respectively.
B. A packet that is sent to from is translated to on R1.
C. R1 looks at the destination IP address of packets entering S0/0 and destined for inside hosts.
D. R1 processes packets entering E0/0 and S0/0 by examining the source IP address.
E. R1 is performing NAT for inside addresses and outside address.

Correct Answer: BC


Which A record type should be configured for access points to resolve the IP address of a wireless LAN controller using DNS?


Correct Answer: D



Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code construct a script that configure a loopback interface with an IP address (not all options are used)?

Select and Place:

new 350-401 exam questions 5

Correct Answer:

new 350-401 exam questions 5-1


Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments In a VXLAN environment?

A. switch fabric
D. host switch

Correct Answer: C

VXLAN uses an 8-byte VXLAN header that consists of a 24-bit VNID and a few reserved bits. The VXLAN
header together with the original Ethernet frame goes in the UDP payload. The 24-bit VNID is used to
identify Layer 2 segments and to maintain Layer 2 isolation between the segments.

configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x/
b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x_chapter_010.html


How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

A. An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.

B. The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C. The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client

D. The client database on the original controller is updated the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

Correct Answer: D


What is one primary REST security design principle?

A. fail-safe defaults
B. password hash
C. adding a timestamp in requests
D. OAuth

Correct Answer: A


Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 exam questions 9
new 350-401 exam questions 9-1

Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209 165 201 0/27 via BR1?

A. Set the weight attribute to 65.535 on BR1 toward PE1.
B. Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound
C. Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound.
D. Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound.

Correct Answer: C


An engineer must protect the password for the VTY lines against over-the-shoulder attacks. Which configuration should be applied?

A. service password-ncryption
B. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMf8elb4RVV8$seZ/bDA
C. username netadmin secret 7$1$42J36k33008Pyh4QzwXyZ4
D. line vty 0 15 p3ssword XD822j

Correct Answer: A


An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?

A. logging buffer
B. service timestamps log uptime
C. logging host
D. terminal monitor

Correct Answer: D



Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right.

Select and Place:

new 350-401 exam questions 12

Correct Answer:

new q12-1

There are four messages sent between the DHCP Client and DHCP Server: DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER,
DHCPREQUEST and DHCPACKNOWLEDGEMENT. This process is often abbreviated as DORA (for Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledgement).


A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent?

A. container
B. Type 1 hypervisor
C. hardware pass-thru
D. Type 2 hypervisor

Correct Answer: D

In contrast to type 1 hypervisor, a type 2 hypervisor (or hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an operating system and not the physical hardware directly. A big advantage of Type 2 hypervisors is that management console software is not required. Examples of type 2 hypervisor are VMware Workstation (which can run on Windows, Mac and Linux) or Microsoft Virtual PC (only runs on Windows).

Download the above free 350-401 exam questions and answers:

[Update 2023]Free download of the new 350-401 PDF exam questions and answers:

The 350-401 ENCOR exam is the core exam for CCNP Enterprise, CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure, and CCIE Enterprise Wireless. Try using 350-401 dumps: (dumps PDF + VCE) Help candidates successfully pass the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) certification exam for the first time.

CompTIA A+ Best Exam Method: Latest 220-1101 dumps

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FromNumber of exam questionsAssociated certificationOnline DownloadLast update
Lead4Pass15A+,CySA+220-1101 PDF220-1101 dumps
New Question 1:

A user reports a cell phone is getting hot. Which of the following is MOST likely to be possible causes? (Select THREE).

A. Using the device as a Wi-Fi hotspot

B. A cracked screen

C. A failing battery

D. Less than 15% free storage space on the phone

E. Privileged control

F. Recurring prompts to install OS updates

G. Granting too many application camera permissions

H. Too many open applications

Correct Answer: ACH

New Question 2:

A hardware technician is configuring a laptop, and the network administrator requires the network settings to be static. The technician successfully pings the servers by IP address but cannot ping the UNC path. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?

A. Domain Name System

B. Gateway

C. Subnet

D. IP address

Correct Answer: A

New Question 3:

New memory modules were installed in several Windows desktops but some users are still reporting performance issues. Upon investigation, a systems administrator notices the desktop has not recognized the new memory modules. Which of the following should the systems administrator perform to help resolve this issue?

A. Configure appropriate settings within the BIOS

B. Replace the RAM

C. Modify the boot. ini file.

D. Install the required drivers through the Control Panel

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

A technician recently discovered me root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing. The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users, which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT?

A. Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future Incidents.

B. Submit a bug report to the developer of the application, along with the steps taken to resolve the issue.

C. Work with the developer to proactively collect the application logs to identify future errors of this type.

D. Send an email communication to the company about the issue and the steps taken to resolve it.

Correct Answer: A

CompTIA 6-Step Troubleshooting Process:


Identify the problem.


Establish a theory of probable cause. (Question the obvious)


Test the theory to determine the cause.


Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.


Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.


Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

New Question 5:

A user submits a help desk ticket regarding a smartphone that will no longer accept its charging cable. The assigned technician notices the phone does not have a protective case, and the user constantly transports the phone in a pocket. The technician attempts to use a secondary charger, but the cable falls out of the phone. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The phone requires a firmware update to address charging issues.

B. The charge port contains foreign objects, such as lint.

C. The phone\’s battery has swelled, preventing the utilization of the charge port.

D. The phone has experienced water damage, thus the battery is not charging.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

A user creates a support ticket to report a conference room projector that does not work. The user says that even though the provided cables are being used, the projector screen shows the following error message:

No signal input

Which of the following describes the FIRST action that should be taken?

A. Verify that the projector is turned on.

B. Verify that the user is using an approved OS.

C. Replace the projector bulb.

D. Check the video cable and replace it if necessary.

Correct Answer: D

The most common reason you may be seeing the “No Signal” message is: The projector and the source device are not connected correctly.

New Question 7:

A customer\’s laptop display has suddenly become very dim. The image of the display can only be seen with a bright, external light, as adjusting the brightness/contracts controls does not cause much change.

Which of the following components MOST likely needs to be replaced?

A. LCD panel

B. Inverter

C. Video card

D. Digitizer

Correct Answer: B

New Question 8:

A user reports issues with a smartphone after dropping it. The icons on the screen all look normal, but when the user touches the email icon, for example, nothing happens. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

A. Digitizer issues

B. Overheating

C. Broken screen

D. Malware

Correct Answer: A

New Question 9:

A technician is dispatched to troubleshoot a slow performance issue on a PC. Upon arrival, the technician immediately opens Task Manager and sees that CPU and RAM performance are within normal ranges. The technician then checks and verifies the speed and duplex settings and performance on the network card. The technician then temporarily disables the antivirus to see if performance is affected, and it is not. After re-enabling the antivirus, which of the following is the NEXT best stop for the technician to take?

A. Check to see if insufficient hard drive space is causing the issue

B. Update the operating system, drivers, and firmware on the PC

C. Log into the PC with another user profile and test the performance

D. Shut down the PC, unplug the power for 30 seconds, and then boot the PC

Correct Answer: A

New Question 10:

A user accidentally spills liquid on a laptop. The user wants the device to be fixed and would like to know how much it will cost. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT to verify if the device is repairable before committing to a price? (Choose two.)

A. Remove the case and organize the parts.

B. Document the screw locations.

C. Search the Internet for repair tutorials.

D. Consult colleagues for advice.

E. Place the device in rice for a few days.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 11:

A systems administrator receives a notification from the RAID controller that the RAID 5 array is degraded. Upon logging into the server, the administrator sees that on local disk 0, physical disk 2 has failed. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to take to resolve the problem?

A. Schedule system downtime and replace physical disk 2. Wait until the array is rebuilt and confirm in the RAID controller that the system is no longer degraded.

B. Immediately replace the physical disk 2. Wait until the arrays are rebuilt and confirm in the RAID controller that the system is no longer degraded.

C. Delete logical disk 0 and manually configure a new RAID array only using the known- good working drives. Wait until the array is rebuilt and confirm in the RAID controller that the system is no longer degraded.

D. In the controller, convert the RAID 5 array to RAID 0 array to avoid system downtime. Wait until the array is rebuilt and confirm in the RAID controller that the system is no longer degraded.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 12:

Which of the following cloud computing concepts provides the ability to scale services as needed to accommodate changes?

A. Measured service

B. On-demand

C. Rapid elasticity

D. Resource pooling

Correct Answer: C


New Question 13:

A technician is setting up a new desktop computer and will be installing the hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables to connect it. Which of the following will the technician be installing?

A. Thunderbolt


C. M.2


Correct Answer: C

New Question 14:

An end user wants to have a second monitor installed on a laptop. Which of the following would allow a technician to configure the laptop to show both screens once the cable is connected?

A. Plug an external monitor into the USB port.

B. Use the Fn and function key combination

C. Adjust the monitor display settings.

D. Enable DisplayPort.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 15:

A remote user called the help desk to report a notification indicating there is limited or no connectivity. The user can access local file folders and other local machines but none of the organization\’s servers or network items. Web pages do not appear to function either. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The user\’s internet connection is down.

B. The user\’s domain account is locked out.

C. The user\’s switch has stopped working.

D. The user\’s IP address needs to be renewed.

Correct Answer: D

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Everything Important About the CCDA 200-901 Certification Exam

CCDA 200-901 Certification Exam

Summarize all important things about the CCDA (Cisco Certified DevNet Associate) 200-901 certification exam: 200-901 DEVASC certification value, exam plan, learning method, career planning, industry salary…

Whether you want to enter this industry or work hard for the next upgrade, you should clearly know all the relevant information of 200-901 certification, which will be explained one by one below:

CCDA 200-901 DEVASC Certification Value

The CCDA 200-901 DEVASC certification holds significant value in the IT industry. It validates your skills in network automation, software development, and infrastructure programmability. This certification is highly relevant in today’s technology landscape and opens up a range of career opportunities. It enhances your professional credibility, as it is recognized by Cisco, a leading networking company. Additionally, it connects you with a community of professionals passionate about network automation and programmability, providing opportunities for learning and collaboration. Overall, the CCDA 200-901 DEVASC certification is valuable for professionals looking to excel in the field of network automation and programmability.

CCDA 200-901 Exam Focus

The CCDA 200-901 exam focuses on evaluating your knowledge and skills in network automation, software development, and infrastructure programmability. It covers topics such as software development and design, understanding and using APIs, infrastructure and automation, network fundamentals, security fundamentals, and network programmability. The exam assesses your understanding of concepts related to network automation, programming interfaces, network infrastructure, security, and software development. By passing the exam, you demonstrate your proficiency in these areas, which are crucial in today’s evolving IT landscape.

200-901 Study Plan

Creating a study plan for the CCDA 200-901 exam is essential to effective preparation. Here are some of the most effective ways:

Gather Study Materials: Collect relevant study materials, such as textbooks, online courses, practice exams, and official Cisco resources. Utilize a mix of resources to cover all the exam topics comprehensively.

Create a Study Schedule: Design a study schedule that suits your needs and allows for regular and consistent study sessions. Allocate dedicated time slots for each exam topic and adhere to the schedule.

Learn and Practice Concepts: Start studying the exam topics one by one. Understand the concepts, theories, and best practices related to network automation, software development, and infrastructure programmability. Practice coding exercises, API interactions, and network automation scenarios.

Hands-on Lab Practice: Set up a lab environment to gain practical experience. Practice working with network devices, APIs, programming languages, and automation tools. Implement and troubleshoot network automation scenarios to reinforce your understanding.

Review and Reinforce: Regularly review the topics you have covered to reinforce your knowledge. Use flashcards, summaries, and review questions to aid in retention. Identify weak areas and focus additional study efforts on those topics.

Take Practice Exams: Utilize practice exams to assess your readiness and identify areas for improvement. Simulate the exam environment and time yourself to gauge your performance. Analyze the questions you answered incorrectly to fill knowledge gaps.

Engage in Discussion and Collaboration: Join study groups or online forums where you can engage in discussions with fellow exam takers. Share knowledge, clarify doubts, and learn from others’ experiences. Collaboration can enhance your understanding and provide valuable insights.

Exam Day Preparation: Prioritize a good night’s sleep before the exam day. Review key concepts and exam strategies. Double-check your exam logistics, such as location and required identification. Arrive early and approach the exam with confidence.

Remember to adjust the study plan according to your learning style and preferences. Stay motivated, maintain a positive mindset, and track your progress throughout the study journey.

CCDA 200-901 practice questions online experience

FromNumber of exam questionsExam codeExam nameLast updated
Lead4Pass.com13200-901Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)200-901 dumps

Which platform is used to programmatically create space and invite users for collaboration?

A. Cisco Intersight

B. Cisco Finesse

C. Cisco Webex

D. Cisco UCM

Correct Answer: C


Which Cisco platform is used to manage data center infrastructure through third-party tools and system integrations?

A. Cisco DNA Center

B. Cisco UCS Manager

C. Cisco Intersight

D. Cisco UCS Director

Correct Answer: C

“Cisco Intersight infrastructure services include the deployment, monitoring, management, and support of your physical and virtual infrastructure…In addition, Cisco provides integrations to third-party operations tools, starting with ServiceNow, to allow customers to use their existing solutions more efficiently.”



How are load balancers used in modern application deployments?

A. Turn off traffic and take down compute units, then update and bring the compute units back up.

B. Allow traffic to continue as new compute units are brought up and old compute units are taken down.

C. Allow HTTP and HTTPS traffic to continue as old compute units are discontinued before new units are brought up.

D. Bring up new compute units, test the compute units, and switch the traffic from old units to new units.

Correct Answer: B

From DEVASC training:

Applications need to be available 24 hours every day. A successful web application should be able to handle ingress traffic even when the number of users drastically rises and be able to support any amount of traffic.

For example, if your web page loads in a couple of seconds with 100,000 users a month, it should be able to load within the same time even with double or triple the amount of users.


What are the two key capabilities of Cisco Finesse? (Choose two.)

A. Agents access Finesse from a browser without needing to install or configure anything on the client machine.

B. An OpenDNS utility is preconfigured and ready to use on Finesse.

C. Gadget containers provide a seamless experience in a single-user interface.

D. Finesse automatically collects telemetry data.

E. Finesse includes an RPC API that enables the development of custom gadgets.

Correct Answer: AC


What is the benefit of version control?

A. prevents two users from working on the same file

B. keeps track of all changes to the files

C. prevents the sharing of files

D. keeps the list of data types used in the files

Correct Answer: B,Benefits%20of%2


A developer is working on a new feature in a branch named \’newfeat123456789\’ and the current working primary branch is named \’prim987654321\’. The developer requires a merge commit during a fast-forward merge for record-keeping purposes. Which Git command must be used?

A. git merge –no-ff newfeat123456789

B. git commit –no-ff newfeat123456789

C. git add –commit-ff newfeat123456789

D. git reset –commit-ff newfeat123456789

Correct Answer: A

In the event that you require a merge commit during a fast-forward merge for record-keeping purposes, you can execute git merge with the –no-ff option.

This command merges the specified branch into the current branch but always generates a merge commit (even if it was a fast-forward merge). This is useful for documenting all merges that occur in your repository.



Refer to the exhibit. A developer cannot reach the web application behind an NGINX load balancer. The developer sends a request to an application FQDN with cURL but gets an HTTP 502 response. Which action solves the problem?

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 7

A. Fix errors in the server configuration, which is behind the load balancer.

B. Bring up the load balancer to the active state.

C. Fix errors in the cURL request sent by the client.

D. Change the default gateway on the load balancer to an active one.

Correct Answer: A

The HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) 502 Bad Gateway server error response code indicates that the server while acting as a gateway or proxy, received an invalid response from the upstream server.,response%20from%20the%20upstream%20server


DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 8

Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to construct a request to find the Cisco DNA Center switch count. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 8-1

Correct Answer:

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 8-2


Why is refactoring done during test-driven development?

A. to enable larger objects and longer methods

B. to improve maintainability and readability

C. to ensure that the previous uses of the objects are explained

D. to ensure the duplication of essential code

Correct Answer: B



Drag and drop the types of management from the left onto the levels at which they are performed on the right.

Select and Place:

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 10

Correct Answer:

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 10-1


Refer to the exhibits.

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 11
latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 11-1

The Python interpreter and the Cisco Python SDK are available by default in the Cisco NX-OS Software. The SDK documentation shows how the clid() API can be used when working with JSON and XML. What are the two effects of running the script? (Choose two.)

A. configure interface loopback 5

B. show details for the TABLE interface

C. issue shutdown on interface loopback 5

D. show only the interfaces in the up status

E. show only the interfaces in admin shut status

Correct Answer: AD




Fill in the blanks to complete the cURL command that invokes a RESTful API to retrieve a resource in JSON format using OAuth.

curl –X _ -H “ ___: application/json” \
-H “ _: Bearer AbCdEf123456” https://localhost/api/myresource

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 12

A. Check the answer in the explanation.

Correct Answer: A

GET Accept Authorization

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 12-1



When a Cisco IOS XE networking device is configured by using RESTCONF, what is the default data encoding method?

A. application/yaml-data+json

B. application/yang-data+json

C. application/xml-data+json

D. application/json-data+xml

Correct Answer: B

RESTCONF is an HTTP-based protocol that uses the REST architectural style to enable the manipulation of data on a network device. It is designed to work with data models defined using the YANG data modeling language, and the default data encoding method for RESTCONF is application/yang-data+json.

PS. Download the above exam questions and answers online:

Download the 443 most recent 200-901 exam questions and answers: (200-901 dumps)

Salary & jobs


On average, professionals holding the Cisco 200-901 certification can expect to earn a competitive salary. According to PayScale, the average annual salary for professionals with the Cisco Certified DevNet Associate certification (which encompasses the 200-901 exam) ranges from approximately $60,000 to $120,000. However, these figures are approximate and can differ based on individual circumstances.

Factors such as years of experience, job responsibilities, geographic location, and the demand for network automation and software development skills in the specific job market can significantly impact salary ranges. It is advisable to research industry-specific salary data and consult job market trends to gain a better understanding of the potential earning potential associated with the Cisco 200-901 certification in your particular area of interest or expertise.


Here are some examples of jobs that certification can qualify you for:

Network Automation Engineer: With the Cisco 200-901 certification, you can pursue a career as a network automation engineer. In this role, you will focus on automating network tasks, developing scripts and tools, and implementing software-defined networking (SDN) solutions.

Software Developer: The certification equips you with software development skills, making you eligible for software developer roles. You can work on developing applications, APIs, and software solutions that integrate with network infrastructure.

Network Architect: As a Cisco 200-901 certified professional, you can qualify for network architect positions. In this role, you will design and plan network infrastructures, ensuring they align with business requirements and incorporate automation and programmability.

DevOps Engineer: The certification prepares you for roles as a DevOps engineer. DevOps engineers focus on streamlining software development and deployment processes, utilizing automation tools, and integrating development and operations practices.

Network Administrator: The Cisco 200-901 certification provides a strong foundation in network fundamentals, making you eligible for network administrator roles. In this position, you will be responsible for managing and maintaining network infrastructure, ensuring its efficient and secure operation.

Network Support Engineer: With the certification, you can pursue roles as a network support engineer. This involves troubleshooting network issues, providing technical support to end users, and ensuring network availability and performance.

Technical Consultant: The Cisco 200-901 certification qualifies you for technical consultant roles. As a technical consultant, you will provide expertise and guidance to clients or internal teams on implementing network automation, programmability, and software development best practices.

These are just a few examples of the job roles that the Cisco 200-901 certification can qualify you for. The certification prepares you to work at the intersection of networking and software development, enabling you to contribute to network automation, infrastructure programmability, and modern network architectures.


This article provides you with the overall planning process for the CCDA 200-901 certification exam, as well as the solution to pass the 200-901 exam (, and good luck!

Lead4Pass 312-50v12 dumps for CEHv12 certification exam

Lead4Pass 312-50v12 dumps updated and released 528 latest exam questions and answers for preparing CEHv12 certification exam!

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FromNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
Lead4Pass15Certified Ethical Hacker Exam (CEHv12)312-50v12312-50v12 dumps
Question 1:

BitLocker encryption has been implemented for all Windows-based computers in an organization. You are concerned that someone might lose their cryptographic key. Therefore, a mechanism was implemented to recover the keys from Active Directory. What is this mechanism called in cryptography?

A. Key Archival

B. Key escrow.

C. Certificate rollover

D. Key renewal

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

An incident investigator asks to receive a copy of the event logs from all firewalls, proxy servers, and Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) on the network of an organization that has experienced a possible breach of security. When the investigator attempts to correlate the information in all of the logs, the sequence of many of the logged events does not match up.

What is the most likely cause?

A. The network devices are not all synchronized.

B. Proper chain of custody was not observed while collecting the logs.

C. The attacker altered or erased events from the logs.

D. The security breach was a false positive.

Correct Answer: A

Many network and system administrators don’t pay enough attention to system clock accuracy and time synchronization. Computer clocks can run faster or slower over time, batteries and power sources die, or daylight-saving time changes are forgotten. Sure, there are many more pressing security issues to deal with, but not ensuring that the time on network devices is synchronized can cause problems. And these problems often only come to light after a security incident. If you suspect a hacker is accessing your network, for example, you will want to analyze your log files to look for any suspicious activity. If your network\’s security devices do not have synchronized times, the timestamps\’ inaccuracy makes it impossible to correlate log files from different sources. Not only will you have difficulty in tracking events, but you will also find it difficult to use such evidence in court; you won’t be able to illustrate a smooth progression of events as they occurred throughout your network.

Question 3:

Which of the following is the primary objective of a rootkit?

A. It opens a port to provide an unauthorized service

B. It creates a buffer overflow

C. It replaces legitimate programs

D. It provides an undocumented opening in a program

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

What is one of the advantages of using both symmetric and asymmetric cryptography in SSL/TLS?

A. Supporting both types of algorithms allows less-powerful devices such as mobile phones to use symmetric encryption instead.

B. Symmetric algorithms such as AES provide a failsafe when asymmetric methods fail.

C. Symmetric encryption allows the server to securely transmit the session keys out-of-band.

D. Asymmetric cryptography is computationally expensive in comparison. However, it is well-suited to securely negotiate keys for use with symmetric cryptography.

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Which command can be used to show the current TCP/IP connections?

A. Netsh

B. Netstat

C. Net use connection

D. Net use

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

You need to deploy a new web-based software package for your organization. The package requires three separate servers and needs to be available on the Internet. What is the recommended architecture in terms of server placement?

A. All three servers need to be placed internally

B. A web server facing the Internet, an application server on the internal network, a database server on the internal network

C. A web server and the database server facing the Internet, an application server on the internal network

D. All three servers need to face the Internet so that they can communicate with themselves

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

You are working as a Security Analyst in a company XYZ that owns the whole subnet range of and

While monitoring the data, you find a high number of outbound connections. You see that IP\’s owned by XYZ (Internal) and private IP\’s are communicating to a Single Public IP. Therefore, the Internal IP\’s are sending data to the Public IP.

After further analysis, you find out that this Public IP is a blacklisted IP, and the internal communicating devices are compromised.

What kind of attack does the above scenario depict?

A. Botnet Attack

B. Spear Phishing Attack

C. Advanced Persistent Threats

D. Rootkit Attack

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

Harry. a professional hacker, targets the IT infrastructure of an organization. After preparing for the attack, he attempts to enter the target network using techniques such as sending spear-phishing emails and exploiting vulnerabilities on publicly available servers. Using these techniques, he successfully deployed malware on the target system to establish an outbound connection. What is the APT lifecycle phase that Harry is currently executing?

A. Preparation

B. Cleanup

C. Persistence

D. initial intrusion

Correct Answer: D

After the attacker completes preparations, the subsequent step is an effort to realize an edge within the target\’s environment.

A particularly common entry tactic is the use of spearphishing emails containing an internet link or attachment.

Email links usually cause sites where the target\’s browser and related software are subjected to varied exploit techniques or where the APT actors plan to social engineer information from the victim which will be used later.

If a successful exploit takes place, it installs an initial malware payload on the victim\’s computer. Figure 2 illustrates an example of a spearphishing email that contains an attachment. Attachments are usually executable malware, a zipper or other archive containing malware, or a malicious Office or Adobe PDF (Portable Document Format) document that exploits vulnerabilities within the victim\’s applications to ultimately execute the malware on the victim\’s computer.

Once the user has opened a malicious file using vulnerable software, malware is executing on the target system. These phishing emails are often very convincing and difficult to differentiate from legitimate email messages.

Tactics to extend their believability include modifying legitimate documents from or associated with the organization. Documents are sometimes stolen from the organization or its collaborators during previous exploitation operations.

Actors modify the documents by adding exploits and malicious code then send them to the victims. Phishing emails are commonly sent through previously compromised email servers, email accounts at organizations associated with the target, or public email services.

Emails also can be sent through mail relays with modified email headers to form the messages that appear to possess originated from legitimate sources.

The exploitation of vulnerabilities on public-facing servers is another favorite technique of some APT groups.

Though this will be accomplished using exploits for known vulnerabilities, 0-days are often developed or purchased to be used in intrusions as required

312-50v12 dumps practice q8

Gaining an edge within the target environment is the primary goal of the initial intrusion.

Once a system is exploited, the attacker usually places malware on the compromised system and uses it as a jump point or proxy for further actions.

Malware placed during the initial intrusion phase is usually an easy downloader, a basic Remote Access Trojan, or an easy shell. Figure 3 illustrates a newly infected system initiating an outbound connection to notify the APT actor that the initial intrusion attempt was successful which it\’s able to accept commands.

Question 9:

What does a firewall check to prevent particular ports and applications from getting packets into an organization?

A. Transport layer port numbers and application layer headers

B. Presentation layer headers and the session layer port numbers

C. Network layer headers and the session layer port numbers

D. Application layer port numbers and the transport layer headers

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

Bob is acknowledged as a hacker of repute and is popular among visitors of “underground” sites.

Bob is willing to share his knowledge with those who are willing to learn, and many have expressed their interest in learning from him. However, this knowledge has a risk associated with it, as it can be used for malevolent attacks as well. In this context, what would be the most effective method to bridge the knowledge gap between the “black” hats or crackers and the “white” hats or computer security professionals? (Choose the test answer.)

A. Educate everyone with books, articles, and training on risk analysis, vulnerabilities, and safeguards.

B. Hire more computer security monitoring personnel to monitor computer systems and networks.

C. Make obtaining either a computer security certification or accreditation easier to achieve so more individuals feel that they are a part of something larger than life.

D. Train more National Guard and reservists in the art of computer security to help out in times of emergency or crises.

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

You are the Network Admin, and you get a complaint that some of the websites are no longer accessible. You try to ping the servers and find them to be reachable. Then you type the IP address and then you try on the browser and find it to

be accessible. But they are not accessible when you try using the URL.

What may be the problem?

A. Traffic is Blocked on UDP Port 53

B. Traffic is Blocked on TCP Port 80

C. Traffic is Blocked on TCP Port 54

D. Traffic is Blocked on UDP Port 80

Correct Answer: A

Most likely have an issue with DNS.

DNS stands for “Domain Name System.” It\’s a system that lets you connect to websites by matching human-readable domain names (like with the server\’s unique ID where a website is stored.

Think of the DNS system as the internet\’s phonebook. It lists domain names with their corresponding identifiers called IP addresses, instead of listing people\’s names with their phone numbers. When a user enters a domain name like on their device, it looks up the IP address and connects them to the physical location where that website is stored.

NOTE: Often DNS lookup information will be cached locally inside the querying computer or remotely in the DNS infrastructure. There are typically 8 steps in a DNS lookup. When DNS information is cached, steps are skipped from the DNS

lookup process, making it quicker. The example below outlines all 8 steps when nothing is cached.

The 8 steps in a DNS lookup:


A user types `\’ into a web browser, and the query travels into the Internet and is received by a DNS recursive resolver;


The resolver then queries a DNS root nameserver;


The root server then responds to the resolver with the address of a Top-Level Domain (TLD) DNS server (such as .com or .net), which stores the information for its domains. When searching for, our request is pointed toward the .com TLD;


The resolver then requests the .com TLD;


The TLD server then responds with the IP address of the domain\’s nameserver,;


Lastly, the recursive resolver sends a query to the domain\’s nameserver;


The IP address for is then returned to the resolver from the nameserver;


The DNS resolver then responds to the web browser with the IP address of the domain requested initially;

Once the 8 steps of the DNS lookup have returned the IP address for, the browser can request the web page:


The browser makes an HTTP request to the IP address;


The server at that IP returns the webpage to be rendered in the browser. NOTE 2: DNS primarily uses the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) on port number 53 to serve requests. And if this port is blocked, then a problem arises already in the first step.

But the ninth step is performed without problems.

Question 12:

This TCP flag instructs the sending system to transmit all buffered data immediately.






Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

Fred is the network administrator for his company. Fred is testing an internal switch.

From an external IP address, Fred wants to try and trick this switch into thinking it already has established a session with his computer. How can Fred accomplish this?

A. Fred can accomplish this by sending an IP packet with the RST/SIN bit and the source address of his computer.

B. He can send an IP packet with the SYN bit and the source address of his computer.

C. Fred can send an IP packet with the ACK bit set to zero and the source address of the switch.

D. Fred can send an IP packet to the switch with the ACK bit and the source address of his machine.

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

Security administrator John Smith has noticed abnormal amounts of traffic coming from local computers at night. Upon review, he finds that user data have been exfiltrated by an attacker. AV tools are unable to find any malicious software, and the IDS/IPS has not reported on any non-whitelisted programs, what type of malware did the attacker use to bypass the company\’s application whitelisting?

A. Phishing malware

B. Zero-day malware

C. File-less malware

D. Logic bomb malware

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

Elliot is in the process of exploiting a web application that uses SQL as a back-end database. He\’s determined that the application is vulnerable to SQL injection, and has introduced conditional timing delays into injected queries to determine whether they are successful. What type of SQL injection is Elliot most likely performing?

A. Error-based SQL injection

B. Blind SQL injection

C. Union-based SQL injection

D. NoSQL injection

Correct Answer: B

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Latest Lead4Pass CCDP/CCDE 350-901 Dumps with VCE and PDF & Online Practice

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TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam codeVerify answer
Free15Developing Applications Using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR)350-901View
Question 1:

Which transport layer protocol does gRPC use to retrieve telemetry information?





Question 2:


Click on the resource tab in the top left comer to view resources to help with this question.

An engineer is managing a data center with 6000 Cisco UCS servers installed and running The engineer is asked to identify all resources where the model is in the UCSB family and the available memory is less than or equal to 5 GB Drag

and drop the code from the bottom onto the blanks in the code snippet to construct a REST API call to accomplish this task. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

350-901 dumps questions 2

Correct Answer:

350-901 dumps questions 2-1

Question 3:
350-901 dumps questions 3

Refer to the exhibits. An interface named “GigabitEthernet2” has been configured on a Cisco IOS XE device. Using RESTCONF APIs as defined by the ietf-interfaces@2014-05- 08. yang model, two combinations of “rest_operation” and “payload” must be added to the Python script to set the “description” to “Configured by RESTCONF”? (Choose two.)

350-901 dumps questions 3-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibits which show the documentation associated with the create port object API call in Cisco Firepower Threat Defense, and a cURL command. Which data payload completes the cURL command to run the API call?

350-901 dumps questions 4

A. B. C. D.

Reference : reference/#!editicmpv4portobject/path-parameters

Question 5:

Which two types of storage are supported for app hosting on a Cisco Catalyst 9000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)

A. external USB storage

B. internal SSD


D. SD-card

E. bootflash

Question 6:


Refer to the exhibit.

350-901 dumps questions 6

Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing to complete the API request. An engineer is using this API request to implement Chat-Ops to generate notifications m a Webex space by using webhooks. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

350-901 dumps questions 6-1

Correct Answer:

350-901 dumps questions 6-2

Question 7:

A team of developers created their own CA and started signing certificates for all of their loT devices. Which action will make the browser accept these certificates?

A. Set the private keys to 1024-bit RSA.

B. Preload the developer CA on the trusted CA list of the browser.

C. Enable HTTPS or port 443 on the browser.

D. install a TLS instead of an SSL certificate on the loT devices.

Question 8:

A developer is working on an enhancement for an application feature and has made changes to a branch called `decor-432436127a-enhance4`. When merging the branch to production, conflicts occurred. Which Git command must the developer use to recreate the pre-merge state?

A. git merge -no-edit

B. git merge -abort

C. git merge -revert

D. git merge –commit

Explanation: This command will recreate the pre-merge state, reverting any changes made to the branch before the merge.

Question 9:

What is the benefit of continuous testing?

A. decreases the frequency of code check-ins

B. removes the requirement for test environments

C. enables parallel testing

D. increases the number of bugs found in production

Question 10:

An enterprise refactors its monolithic application into a modem cloud-native application that is based on microservices. A key requirement of the application design is to ensure that the IT team is aware of performance issues or bottlenecks in

the new application.

Which two approaches must be part of the design considerations\’\’ (Choose two.)

A. Periodically scale up the resources of the host machines when the application starts to experience high loads

B. Instrument the application code to gather telemetry data from logs, metrics or tracing

C. Adopt a service-oriented architecture to handle communication between the services that make up the application

D. Deploy infrastructure monitoring agents into the operating system of the host machines

E. Implement infrastructure monitoring to ensure that pipeline components interoperate smoothly and reliably

Question 11:

Users report that they are no longer able to process transactions with the online ordering application, and the logging dashboard is displaying these messages: Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.123 ESI 2020 [FRONTEND] [NFO: Incoming request to add the item to cart from user 45834534858 Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.247 EST 2020 [BACKEND] INFO: Attempting to add the item to cart Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.250 EST 2020 [BACKEND] ERROR: Failed to add an item: MYSQLDB ERROR: Connection refused What is causing the problem seen in these log messages?

A. The database server container has crashed.

B. The backend process is overwhelmed with too many transactions.

C. The backend is not authorized to commit to the database.

D. The user is not authorized to add the item to their cart.

Question 12:


Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing to stop the REST API requests if a \’Too Many Requests” response is received. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

350-901 dumps questions 12

Correct Answer:

350-901 dumps questions 12-1

Question 13:

Which two methods are API security best practices? (Choose two.)

A. Use tokens after the identity of a client has been established.

B. Use the same operating system throughout the infrastructure.

C. Use encryption and signatures to secure data.

D. Use basic auth credentials for overall internal API interactions.

E. Use cloud hosting services to manage security configuration.

Question 14:

Where must the data be encrypted to ensure end-to-end encryption when using an API?

A. on the device that consumes the API

B. on the source device before transmission

C. on the end device after a request is received

D. on the server that stores the data

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-901 dumps questions 15

An Intersight API is being used to query RackUnit resources that have a tag keyword set to “Site”. What is the expected output of this command?

A. list of all resources that have a tag with the keyword “Site”

B. error message because the Value field was not specified

C. error message because the tag filter should be lowercase

D. a list of all sites that contain RackUnit tagged compute resources

Verify answer:


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Lead4Pass 300-720 dumps Last Update 2023

The latest updated Lead4Pass 300-720 dumps for 2023:, contains 94 real exam questions and answers, verified by a professional team, to help you pass the 300-720 SESA certification exam.

Passing the Cisco 300-720 exam is not that simple, you need to go through a lot of practice and preparation before the exam to be really successful, use Lead4Pass 300-720 dumps with PDF and VCE to help you complete all the exercises. Then Use ChatGPT to find out more preparation details, and you can accomplish your goals without fail.

ChatGPT tells you Cisco 300-720 certification exam details:

The Cisco 300-720 exam, also known as the Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA) exam, is a certification exam that tests your knowledge and skills in securing email communication with the use of the Cisco Email Security Appliance.

The exam consists of 60-70 questions and lasts for 90 minutes.
The questions are presented in various formats, including multiple-choice, drag-and-drop, and simulation questions. The exam is available in English and Japanese.

The topics covered in the exam include:

1. Secure Email Gateway Architecture and Features

2. Cisco Email Security Appliance Installation and Configuration

3. Message Filtering

4. Email Encryption

5. System Administration and Troubleshooting

The exam can be taken at any Pearson VUE testing center, and the cost of the exam is $300 USD.
To prepare for the exam, Cisco offers a range of resources, including self-paced e-learning courses, instructor-led training courses, and study groups.

Practice the latest Cisco 300-720 exam questions from Lead4Pass

TypeNumber of exam questionsExam CodeExam NameLast UpdatedExam Answers
Free15300-720Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA)300-720 dumpsView
Question 1:

Which suboption must be selected when LDAP is configured for Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication?

A. Designate as the active query

B. Update Frequency

C. Server Priority

D. Entity ID


Question 2:

What are the two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject

B. work queue

C. action

D. delivery

E. quarantine

Reference: (p.1)

Question 3:

A Cisco ESA administrator has several mail policies configured. While testing policy matches using a specific sender, the email was not matching the expected policy. What is the reason for this?

A. The “From” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.

B. The message header with the highest priority is checked against each policy in a top-down fashion.

C. The “To” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.

D. The message header with the highest priority is checked against the Default policy in a top-down fashion.

Question 4:

Which action must be taken before a custom quarantine that is being used can be deleted?

A. Delete the quarantine that is assigned to a filter.

B. Delete the quarantine that is not assigned to a filter.

C. Delete only the unused quarantine.

D. Remove the quarantine from the message action of a filter.


Question 5:

Which global setting is configured under Cisco ESA Scan Behavior?

A. minimum attachment size to scan

B. attachment scanning timeout

C. actions for unscannable messages due to attachment type

D. minimum depth of attachment recursion to scan


Question 6:

Which two are configured in the DMARC verification profile? (Choose two.)

A. the name of the verification profile

B. the minimum number of signatures to verify

C. ESA listeners to use the verification profile

D. message action into an incoming or outgoing content filter

E. message action to take when the policy is reject/quarantine


Question 7:

A Cisco ESA administrator has noticed that new messages being sent to the Centralized Policy Quarantine are being released after one hour. Previously, they were held for a day before being released. What was configured that caused this to occur?

A. The retention period was changed to one hour.

B. The threshold settings were set to override the clock settings.

C. The retention period was set to default.

D. The threshold settings were set to default.

Question 8:

Which two actions are configured on the Cisco ESA to query LDAP servers? (Choose two.)

A. accept

B. relay

C. delay

D. route

E. reject


Question 9:

Which two configurations are used on multiple LDAP servers to connect with Cisco ESA? (Choose two.)

A. load balancing

B. SLA monitor

C. active-standby

D. failover

E. active-active

You can enter multiple host names to configure the LDAP servers for failover or load-balancing. Separate multiple entries with commas.


Question 10:

Which two action types are performed by Cisco ESA message filters? (Choose two.)

A. non-final actions

B. filter actions

C. discard actions

D. final actions

E. quarantine actions


Question 11:

What is the benefit of implementing URL filtering on the Cisco ESA?

A. removes threats from malicious URLs

B. blacklists spam

C. provides URL reputation protection

D. enhances reputation against malicious URLs


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to connect to a Cisco ESA using SSH and has been unsuccessful. Upon further inspection, the engineer notices that there is a loss of connectivity to the neighboring switch.

latest 300-720 questions 12

Which connection method should be used to determine the configuration issue?

A. Telnet


C. Ethernet

D. serial

Question 13:

Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.)

A. The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters.

B. Message filter configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters.

C. The filter config command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters.

D. Message filters can be configured only from the CLI.

E. Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface.


Question 14:

Which two factors must be considered when message filter processing is configured? (Choose two.)

A. message-filter order

B. lateral processing

C. structure of the combined packet

D. mail policies

E. MIME structure of the message


Question 15:

What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies?

A. message splintering

B. message exceptions

C. message detachment

D. message aggregation

View answer:


Get the latest updated 300-720 dumps for 2023: (94 Q&A PDF +VCE).

ChatGPT tells you the value of Cisco 300-720 SESA certification

Cisco 300-720 SESA (Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance) certification is designed for professionals who want to specialize in email security.

It validates the knowledge and skills required to configure, manage, and troubleshoot Cisco Email Security Appliances, as well as to implement email security solutions.

The value of Cisco 300-720 SESA certification is that it provides the following benefits:

1. Expertise in Email Security: This certification demonstrates that you have expertise in email security, including threat protection, email encryption, and email filtering. It also validates your ability to configure, manage, and troubleshoot Cisco Email Security Appliances.

2. Career Opportunities: This certification enhances your career opportunities by validating your expertise in email security. It can open up new job opportunities and increase your earning potential.

3. Recognition: Cisco is a well-known and respected brand in the IT industry, and earning a Cisco certification demonstrates your commitment to your profession and your dedication to staying up-to-date with the latest technologies and best practices.

4. Competitive Advantage: Cisco 300-720 SESA certification provides a competitive advantage over non-certified professionals. It demonstrates your commitment to your profession and your willingness to invest in your career development.

5. Professional Growth: This certification also provides opportunities for professional growth by providing access to training, resources, and networking opportunities with other Cisco-certified professionals.

In summary, Cisco 300-720 SESA certification validates your expertise in email security, enhances your career opportunities, provides recognition and competitive advantage, and supports your professional growth.

CyberOps Professional 350-201 Exam Experience Sharing

The most valuable experience provided by multiple successful CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam candidates, sharing how to successfully pass this exam.

This article uses ChatGPT to answer all the questions that CyberOps Professional 350-201 Certification candidates care about. It is really smart and helps us save more time and provide the most accurate and effective answers. And the latest useful ones provided by Lead4Pass certification exam questions and answers,Really help the follow-up people to pass the exam successfully.

Is the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam difficult?

Is the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam difficult?

The difficulty level of the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam can vary from person to person and depends on factors such as their prior experience and knowledge in the field, preparation time, and study habits. However, in general, the 350-201 exam is considered to be a challenging certification exam that tests a candidate’s ability to understand and apply complex cybersecurity concepts.

It is recommended to have hands-on experience and a thorough understanding of the exam content and format before taking the exam.

Best Ways to Take the CyberOps Professional 350-201 Certification Exam

Best Ways to Take the CyberOps Professional 350-201 Certification Exam

To prepare for the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam, here are some best practices:

1. Study the exam objectives and familiarize yourself with the exam format and content.

2. Use Cisco’s official course materials and study resources, such as the “Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)” course and the Cisco CyberOps Associate certification exam guide.

3. Practical experience with the relevant technology is essential. Consider setting up a lab environment or using a simulation tool for practice. Welcome to Lead4Pass 350-201 Dumps: which includes PDF study files and VCE practice exam tools to help you study for success with ease.

4. Join study groups or online forums to collaborate with others and discuss questions and best practices.

5. Regularly take practice exams to gauge your understanding of the material and identify areas where you need more study.

6. Stay current with industry developments and updates by regularly reading relevant blogs, whitepapers, and other resources.

Remember, the more you practice, the better prepared you’ll be for the exam. Good luck!

What are the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam details

What are the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam details?

1. The Cisco CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam is a 120-minute, 65-75 multiple choice, and simulation-based test.

2. The exam is designed to measure the candidate’s ability to understand, analyze and respond to security threats in a complex network environment.

3. The topics covered in the exam include security concepts, security monitoring, security incidents, analysis, and response procedures.

4. The minimum passing score for the exam is not publicly disclosed by Cisco.

5. The exam is available in English and Japanese languages and can be taken at any Cisco-authorized testing center or online through the Pearson VUE platform.

CyberOps Professional 350-201 Online Practice

TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam codeExam answers
Free15Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR)350-201View
Question 1:

A company\’s web server availability was breached by a DDoS attack and was offline for 3 hours because it was not deemed a critical asset in the incident response playbook. Leadership has requested a risk assessment of the asset. An analyst conducted the risk assessment using the threat sources, events, and vulnerabilities.

Which additional element is needed to calculate the risk?

A. assessment scope

B. event severity and likelihood

C. incident response playbook

D. risk model framework

Question 2:


Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

350-201 questions 2

Correct Answer:

350-201 questions 2-1

Question 3:

A Mac laptop user notices that several files have disappeared from their laptop documents folder. While looking for the files, the user notices that the browser history was recently cleared. The user raises a case, and an analyst reviews the network usage and discovers that it is abnormally high.

Which step should be taken to continue the investigation?

A. Run the sudo sys diagnose command

B. Run the sh command

C. Run the w command

D. Run the who command


Question 4:

An engineer receives an incident ticket with hundreds of intrusion alerts that require investigation. An analysis of the incident log shows that the alerts are from trusted IP addresses and internal devices. The final incident report stated that these alerts were false positives and that no intrusions were detected.

What action should be taken to harden the network?

A. Move the IPS to after the firewall facing the internal network

B. Move the IPS to before the firewall facing the outside network

C. Configure the proxy service on the IPS

D. Configure reverse port forwarding on the IPS

Question 5:
350-201 questions 5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps mitigate attacks on the webserver from the Internet? (Choose two.)

A. Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only TLS 1.3

B. Implement a proxy server in the DMZ network

C. Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only external connections

D. Move the webserver to the internal network

Question 6:

An organization had an incident with the network availability during which devices unexpectedly malfunctioned. An engineer is investigating the incident and found that the memory pool buffer usage reached a peak before the malfunction. Which action should the engineer take to prevent this issue from reoccurring?

A. Disable memory limit.

B. Disable CPU threshold trap toward the SNMP server.

C. Enable memory tracking notifications.

D. Enable memory threshold notifications.

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing static analysis of a file received and reported by a user. Which risk is indicated in this STIX?

350-201 questions 7

A. The file is redirecting users to a website that requests privilege escalations from the user.

B. The file is redirecting users to the website that is downloading ransomware to encrypt files.

C. The file is redirecting users to a website that harvests cookies and stored account information.

D. The file redirects users to a website that is determining users’ geographic location.

Question 8:

An analyst is alerted for a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware. Which tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?

A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu

B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu

C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu

D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu

Question 9:

An analyst received multiple alerts on the SIEM console of users that are navigating to malicious URLs. The analyst needs to automate the task of receiving alerts and processing the data for further investigations. Three variables are available from the SIEM console to include in an automation script: console_ip, api_token, and reference_set_name. What must be added to this script to receive a successful HTTP response?

#!/usr/bin/pythonimport sysimport requests

A. {1}, {2}

B. {1}, {3}

C. console_ip, api_token

D. console_ip, reference_set_name

Question 10:

A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching?

A. Identify the business applications running on the assets

B. Update software to patch third-party software

C. Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit

D. Fix applications according to the risk scores

Question 11:


Drag and drop the function on the left onto the mechanism on the right.

Select and Place:

350-201 questions 11

Correct Answer:

350-201 questions 11-1

Question 12:

A security architect is working in a processing center and must implement a DLP solution to detect and prevent any type of copy-and-paste attempts of sensitive data within unapproved applications and removable devices. Which technical architecture must be used?

A. DLP for data in motion

B. DLP for removable data

C. DLP for data in use

D. DLP for data at rest


Question 13:
350-201 questions 13

Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script?

A. Seeds for existing domains are checked

B. A search is conducted for additional seeds

C. Domains are compared to seed rules

D. A list of domains as seeds is blocked

Question 14:

What is needed to assess risk mitigation effectiveness in an organization?

A. analysis of key performance indicators

B. compliance with security standards

C. cost-effectiveness of control measures

D. an updated list of vulnerable systems

Question 15:

Patient views information that is not theirs when they sign in to the hospital\’s online portal. The patient calls the support center at the hospital but continues to be put on hold because other patients are experiencing the same issue. An incident has been declared, and an engineer is now on the incident bridge as the CyberOps Tier 3 Analyst. There is a concern about the disclosure of PII occurring in real time.

What is the first step the analyst should take to address this incident?

A. Evaluate visibility tools to determine if external access resulted in tampering

B. Contact the third-party handling provider to respond to the incident as critical

C. Turn off all access to the patient portal to secure patient records

D. Review system and application logs to identify errors in the postal code

View 139 latest valid CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam questions and answers, and download Lead4Pass 350-201 dumps 2023:, to help you pass the exam successfully.

CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam answers


Is the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam worth it?

The value of a certification exam such as the CyberOps Professional 350-201 depends on individual goals and career aspirations.

In general, certifications can demonstrate a level of knowledge and skills in a specific area, which can be attractive to potential employers. They can also provide opportunities for professional growth and can increase earning potential.

However, the value of a certification is subjective and varies based on individual circumstances and the current job market demand for the skills and knowledge tested in the exam. It’s important to weigh the cost and time investment of obtaining certification against its potential benefits.

Rewards for successfully passing the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam

Rewards for successfully passing the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam

Upon successful completion of the Cisco 350-201 CyberOps Professional certification exam, the following rewards are typically achieved:

1. Recognition of expertise in cybersecurity operations and threat detection.

2. Improved job prospects and higher earning potential in the cybersecurity field.

3. Validation of skills and knowledge in cybersecurity operations and analysis.

4. Access to a network of professionals in the cybersecurity industry.

5. Increased credibility and confidence in performing cybersecurity operations.

6. Opportunities for advancement and leadership in the cybersecurity field.

7. Possibility of increased responsibilities and opportunities for professional growth.

Latest Lead4Pass 220-1101 dumps for CompTIA A+ 2023

comptia a+ 220-1101 exam 2023

Lead4Pass 220-1101 dumps contain 349 latest exam questions and answers and are the best option for CompTIA A+ 2023.

Inform CompTIA A+ candidates: 220-1001: October 20, 2022 Retirement.

CompTIA A+ candidates can take the 220-1101 certification exam from April 2022. Those who take the 220-1001 exam in 2019 need to prepare for a new exam (220-1101 Exam) this year. In order to solve the 2023 CompTIA A+ exam, Lead4Pass released the latest 220-1101 dumps:, guaranteeing you 100% pass the exam.

Share some Lead4Pass 220-1101 dumps exam questions online for free:

Number of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
15CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1220-1101220-1001 dumps

A technician is upgrading a legacy wireless router for a home user. After installing the new router and configuring the SSID to be the same, none of the devices will connect to the network.

Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?

A. OHCP pool configuration

B. MAC filtering list

C. Wireless protocol settings

D. ONS servers

Correct Answer: B


Several users who share a multifunction printer in an office have reported unintended, thin, vertical lines that cover the entire height of every page printed from the printer.

Which of the following steps should a technician complete in order to MOST likely resolve this issue?

A. Replace the printer paper with a new ream.

B. Clear the print spooler on each computer.

C. Reinstall the printer driver on each computer

D. Perform the drum-cleaning procedure.

Correct Answer: D


A user’s computer is not receiving a network connection. The technician confirms that the connection seems to be down and looks for the user’s port on the patch panel. The port and patch panel are not labeled.

Which of the following network tools should the technician use to identify the port?

A. Network tap

B. Punchdown tool

C. Toner probe

D. Crimper

Correct Answer: C



Toner Probe Many cable testers also incorporate the function of a toner probe, which is used to identify a cable from within a bundle.

This may be necessary when the cables have not been labeled properly. The tone generator is connected to the cable using an RJ45 jack and applies a continuous audio signal on the cable. The probe is used to detect the signal and follow the cable over ceilings and through ducts or identify it from within the rest of the bundle.


A technician is configuring a workstation to be used as a VM host. After installing the necessary software, the technician is unable to create any VMs.

Which of the following actions should be performed?

A. Disable the BIOS password.

B. Enable TPM.

C. Enable multithreading.

D. Enable Fast Startup.

Correct Answer: B



If you want to install Windows 11 on a virtual machine using Hyper-V, you will have to use a “Generation 2” VM and enable the “trusted platform module” (TPM) and Secure Boot options. Otherwise, the OS won’t install.

Starting with Windows 11, Microsoft is changing the system requirement and making TPM 2.0 and Secure Boot a prerequisite to perform an in-place upgrade or clean install the new version on any device. This is in addition to the new 4GB of RAM and at least 64GB of storage.

quoted from here:
Furthermore, Multithreading is not a requirement for hyper-v hosting.


A company just bought a printer capable of automatically printing on both sides of the paper After installation, however, the technician can only print on both sides of the paper manually.

Which of the following should the technician do to fix the issue?

A. Install the most recent firmware upgrade available for the printer.

B. Contact the vendor for a hardware replacement.

C. Reinstall the printer software and drivers, and then restart the printer.

D. Read the installation manual and configure duplex settings.

Correct Answer: D


A user submitted a support ticket that states all of the printouts from a laser printer appear to have double images imposed on them. A review of past printer support tickets shows that the maintenance kit has not been installed in more than a year.

Which of the following printer consumables is MOST likely causing the issue?

A. Separation pad

B. Transfer roller

C. Ink cartridge

D. Fuser

Correct Answer: D




An organization maintains various record types, including health and criminal justice records. Which of the following cloud environments is the organization MOST likely to use to limit the attack surface?

A. Public

B. Hybrid

C. Community

D. Private

Correct Answer: D


Which of the following describes the main difference between T568A and T568B cabling standards?

A. The T568B data transfer rate is higher than T568A.

B. The green and orange cables are interchanged.

C. T568A is used in blue cables, and T568B is used in green cables.

D. The standards use different cable connectors.

Correct Answer: A


A technician is replacing a ribbon on a printer that produces faded text and Images when priming. Which of the following types of primers is the technician working on?

A. Impact

B. Inkjet

C. Laser

D. Thermal

Correct Answer: D


A user on the marketing team uses various multimedia applications that consume a lot of memory. The user needs to install more RAM to run these applications effectively. When the user opens the computer case, the user sees four slots in two sets of colors.

Which of the following memory types is MOST likely required?

A. Dual-channel

B. Triple-channel

C. Single-channel

D. Quad-channel

E. Error correction code RAM

Correct Answer: A


A system administrator has been tasked with allowing SMTP traffic through the system’s host-based firewall. Which of the following ports should the administrator enable?

A. 23

B. 25

C. 80

D. 161

Correct Answer: A


The Chief Executive Officer wants to ensure company data is stored in a manner that provides the company with complete control over how the data is managed.

Which of the following is the BEST cloud deployment model for this request?

A. Community

B. Hybrid

C. Public

D. Private

Correct Answer: D


A help desk technician has been tasked with installing an IP phone in a small office with an unmanaged switch. When connected to an RJ45 receptacle, the phone does not boot.

Which of the following is the QUICKEST way to resolve this issue?

A. Upgrade the Ethernet cable to the latest specification.

B. Replace the phone.

C. Install a PoE injector.

D. Change ports on the switch.

Correct Answer: C



A user sends a print job to a network printer, and the print job uses double the amount of paper as expected. Which of the following should the user configure to get the expected result?

A. Duplex

B. Collate

C. Landscape

D. Transparency

Correct Answer: A


Which of the following is a method that can be used to securely connect a remote user’s laptop to a corporate server?





Correct Answer: B

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Lead4Pass fc0-u61 dumps Guaranteed 2022-2023 CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam Pass

2022-2023 CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam

Lead4Pass fc0-u61 dumps cover the actual CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ certification exam items, guaranteeing that candidates can pass the exam 100% in 2022-2023.

fc0-u61 dumps with PDF and VCE:, contains 213 latest exam questions and answers, verified by the CompTIA expert team to ensure authenticity and validity.

Lead4Pass fc0-u61 exam questions and answers

Read some of the Lead4Pass fc0-u61 dumps exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
15CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification ExamFC0-U61FC0-U61 dumps
Question 1:

An end user\’s computer has been failing to open its word-processing software. An IT technician successfully solves the problem. Which of the following best describes the technician\’s NEXT step?

A. Restart the computer.

B. Contact other users.

C. Disconnect the peripherals.

D. Document the findings.

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

Ann, a user, wants to ensure that if her credentials are compromised, they cannot be used to access all of her logins or accounts. Which of the following best practices should she implement?

A. Password history

B. Password length

C. Password reuse

D. Password complexity

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:

A company is developing an application that will be used to simplify typing on a virtual keyboard. This will MOST likely be installed on:

A. a mobile OS.

B. a workstation OS.

C. a server OS.

D. an embedded OS.

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

Which of the following encryption types would BEST be used to protect data on a shared computer?

A. File


C. Email

D. Mobile

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

The IT department has established a new password policy for employees. Specifically, the policy reads:

Passwords must not contain common dictionary words Passwords must contain at least one special character. Passwords must be different from the last six passwords used. Passwords must use at least one capital letter or number.

Which of the following practices is being employed? (Select TWO).

A. Password lockout

B. Password complexity

C. Password expiration

D. Passwords history

E. Password length

F. Password age

Correct Answer: BD

Question 6:

A user is buying a laptop. The user will have a lot of personal and confidential information on the laptop. The user wants to ensure data cannot be accessed by anyone, even if the laptop is stolen.

Which of the following should be set up to accomplish this?

A. Encryption

B. Compression

C. Permissions

D. Auditing

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

A developer needs to add a table to a database. Which of the following database activities should the user perform?





Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

A user is having issues connecting to the Internet through a web browser; however, the user is receiving email and instant messages.

Which of the following should the user do to BEST resolve the issue?

A. Validate the certificate.

B. Verify the proxy settings.

C. Disable the pop-up blocker.

D. Clear the browser cache.

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

Which of the following WiFi security options would create the MOST need for a VPN connection on the client device?

A. Open




Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

A user at a company visits a weather website often during the day. The user browses the site in the afternoon and notices that the temperature listed is from the morning and is not the current temperature.

The user closes the page and tries again with the same result.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. Proxy server

B. Browser add-on

C. Corrupted cache

D. Script blocker

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Which of the following would be considered the BEST method of securely distributing medical records?

A. Encrypted flash drive

B. Social networking sites

C. Fax

D. FTP file sharing

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

A remote user, who is working from home, requires significant bandwidth to connect to the corporate systems.

Which of the following types of Internet service connections would BEST meet the user\’s needs?

A. T1 line

B. Satellite

C. Fiber optic


Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

Which of the following is primarily a confidentiality concern?

A. Eavesdropping

B. Impersonating

C. Destructing

D. Altering

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

When developing a game, a developer creates a boss object that has the ability to jump. Which of the following programming concepts does jump represent?

A. Method

B. Object

C. Property

D. Attribute

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

Ann, a user, connects to the corporate WiFi and tries to browse the Internet. Ann finds that she can only get to local (intranet) pages.

Which of the following actions would MOST likely fix the problem?

A. Renew the IP address.

B. Configure the browser proxy settings.

C. Clear the browser cache.

D. Disable the pop-up blocker

Correct Answer: B

2022-2023 fc0-u61 dumps:, contains 213 latest CompTIA fc0-u61 exam questions and answers, covering actual CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ certification exam questions and answers, Candidates are guaranteed to pass the exam successfully.