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More detailed 500-560 OCSE certification information:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 500-560
Exam Name: Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions Exam
Certification: Cisco Express Specialization – Networking Track
Duration: 60 minutes
Languages: English
Number of Questions: 45 – 55
500-560 dumps: (Total Questions: 50 Q&A)

Cisco 500-560 exam questions online practice test:

Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

What is one feature of MV cameras that allows users to optimize video retention?

A. zoom lens

B. motion-based retention

C. low bit rate and frame rate

D. high definition

Question 2:

Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing what you intended it to do?

A. Cisco DNA Assurance

B. Cisco ACI Anywhere

C. Cisco DNA Spaces

D. Cisco HyperFlex

Question 3:

What is one capability of the Catalyst 9200 web user interface?

A. integrating with compatible Cisco routers

B. providing AMP support

C. opening a case with Cisco Technical Assistance Center

D. monitoring selected sections on the dashboard

Question 4:

Where on the Web User interface can customers find details of application visibility and control?

A. the monitoring panel

B. the dashboard

C. configuration

D. troubleshooting

Question 5:

Which combination of MS switch models has supported foe physical stacking with each other?

A. MS120-8 and MS120-24

B. MS350-48 and MS350-24X

C. MS225-48 and MS350-48

D. MS225-24 and MS425-16

Question 6:

What is one benefit of the Cisco 1100 ISR router over the 900 ISR router for mid-size organizations?

A. The 1100 ISR provides support for xDSL types of WAN interfaces

B. The 1100 ISR is compatible with all Cisco switches.

C. The 1100 ISR provides APIC support.

D. The 1100 ISR includes a built-in firewall and advanced QOS features.

Question 7:

Which statement is true about Cisco Mobility Express?

A. It must be connected to a separate physical wireless controller to provide full enterprise features.

B. It can be deployed in under 10 minutes with an easy 3-stepover-the-air configuration wizard.

C. It comes with a simple, easy-to-use vManage dashboard.

D. Customers must purchase a license to support more than 50 APs.

Question 8:

Which is an SKU for Mobility Express?

A. AIR-AP1815W-X-K9

B. AlR-AP28021-K9

C. AIR-AP18151-K9C

D. AlR-AP18521-K9

Question 9:

What is one benefit of the Aironet 4800 AP?

A. cost-effectiveness for small-to-medium-sized deployments

B. modularity for investment protection

C. Cisco CleanAir

D. industry-leading hyper location

Question 10:

Which Cisco product is the network management system, foundational controller, and analytics platform all the center of ……. network?

A. Cisco DNA Spaces

B. Cisco Meraki

C. Cisco DNA Center

D. Cisco Wireless Solutions

Question 11:

What feature of the Catalyst does 2960-L allow customers to get a small branch or office network running within minutes?

A. support for Cisco DNA center

B. on-box web interface for configuration

C. flexible deployments with StackWise-160

D. complete CLI support

Question 12:

Which is a function performed by the dedicated third radio in MR access points?

A. RF optimization (Auto RF)

B. WLAN controller

C. Site survey planning

D. DHCP addressing

Question 13:

Which three product capabilities allow Cisco DNA Spaces to deliver business value?

A. Sense, Act, and Partner

B. View, Interpret, and Act

C. See, Anticipate and Respond

D. See, Act, and Extend

Question 14:

What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX Security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)

B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)

C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

Question 15:

Which statement correctly describes how Cisco Meraki devices behave should they be unable to contact the Meraki Cloud server?

A. The network devices will attempt to establish a connection to a locally hosted database server that has been configured for high availability.

B. The devices may be re-initiated into a backup mode if an administrator manually intervenes using a direct, local connection.

C. The network stops passing traffic across all devices and the interfaces including any connected non-Cisco Meraki devices.

D. The network devices continue to function normally (traffic lows at full rate) but management and configuration functions are interrupted.


Verify answer:


500-560 OCSE certification exam tests covers Switching, Routing, Wireless, Cloud and Security solutions for engagements with smaller business customers.
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The latest update CompTIA N10-008 free dumps from Lead4Pass

comptia n10-008 updated

Share part of the CompTIA N10-008 exam dumps for free to help you improve your strength, you can participate in the exam test online to test your strength!
The complete CompTIA N10-008 exam dumps are in Lead4Pass (Total Questions: 227 Q&A) [Updated 2022 Total Questions: 384 Q&A] The complete dumps contain two modes: PDF and VCE, which you can choose arbitrarily.

[Updated 2022] N10-008 Exam Question and Answers


A network administrator is installing a new IDS device that will collect logs and alert the administrator of breaches.
The network infrastructure includes a modern, firewall, and core and access switches.
The modem is ISP provided and only forwards packets from the data circuit.
The firewall handles stateful packet inspection, the ACL, and application layer filtering.
Which of the following describes where the administrator should install the IDS device on the network to collect the MOST relevant information?

A. In front of the modem and firewall
B. Between the modem and firewall
C. Behind the firewall on the core switch
D. After the access switch

Correct Answer: A



A network administrator is implementing OSPF on all of a company\’s network devices. Which of the following will MOST likely replace all the company\’s hubs?

A. A Layer 3 switch
B. A proxy server
D. A WLAN controller

Correct Answer: A



Which of the following OSI model layers is where conversations between applications are established, coordinated, and terminated?

A. Session
B. Physical
C. Presentation
D. Data link

Correct Answer: A



An administrator needs to connect to a server to install security patches. The administrator requests that port 3389 be allowed through the firewall. Which of the following access methods is the administrator looking to use?

B. Telnet

Correct Answer: D



After rebooting a PC, a user is no longer able to connect to the corporate network. As a test, the technician plugs a different laptop into the same network jack and receives an IP address of Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?

A. DHCP scope exhaustion
B. Improper DNS setting
C. Incorrect ACL setting
D. Port-security violation

Correct Answer: A

[Updated 2022] Get more Comptia N10-008 exam questions and answers

CompTIA N10-008 free dumps of the latest updates

Take the test, the answer will be announced at the end of the article

Question 1:


You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 Access Points and a single switch. The network must meet the following parameters:

The SSIDs need to be configured as CorpNet with a key of S3cr3t!

The wireless signals should not interfere with each other The subnet the Access Points and switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum The Access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed


Click on the wireless devices and review their information and adjust the settings of the access points to meet the given requirements.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

comptia n10-008 exam questions q1 comptia n10-008 exam questions q1-1 comptia n10-008 exam questions q1-2 comptia n10-008 exam questions q1-3

Correct Answer: See below.

On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows

Access Point Name AP1 IP Address Gateway

SSID corpnet

SSID Broadcast yes

Mode G

Channel 1

Speed Auto

Duplex Auto


Passphrase S3cr3t!

Exhibit 2 as follows

Access Point Name AP2

IP Address


SSID corpnet

SSID Broadcast yes

Mode G

Channel 6

Speed Auto

Duplex Auto


Passphrase S3cr3t!

Exhibit 3 as follows

Access Point Name AP3

IP Address


SSID corpnet

SSID Broadcast yes

Mode G

Channel 11

Speed Auto

Duplex Auto


Passphrase S3cr3t!

Question 2:


You are tasked with verifying the following requirements are met in order to ensure network security.



-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage

-Provide a dedicated server to resolve IP addresses and hostnames correctly and handle port 53 traffic Building A

-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage

-Provide devices to support 5 additional different office users

-Add an additional mobile user

-Replace the Telnet server with a more secure solution Screened subnet

-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage

Provide a server to handle external 80/443 traffic

Provide a server to handle port 20/21 traffic


Drag and drop objects onto the appropriate locations. Objects can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled.

Available objects are located in both the Servers and Devices tabs of the Drag and Drop menu.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

comptia n10-008 exam questions q2

Correct Answer: See below.

Top left subnet –

Top right subnet –

Bottom subnet –

Screened Subnet devices – Web server, FTP server

Building A devices – SSH server top left, workstations on all 5 on the right, laptop on bottom left

DataCenter devices – DNS server.


Question 3:

A network administrator has discovered a low-end managed switch connoted to the company LAN. While reading about the device\’s specifications on the manufacturer\’s website, the administrator discovers the switch does not support a command line interface for administration. Which of the following remote access methods should the administrator use to log in the switch?

A. install a VNC plugin on the web Browser

B. Connect to the HTTPS management interface

C. Replace the managed switch with an unmanaged switch.

D. Establish an SSH session.

Question 4:

A company needs to be able to restore 100% of its data from any single day\’s backup. Which of the following backup types should the company use?

A. Full

B. Incremental

C. snapshot

D. Differential

Question 5:

A company\’s users have been reporting excessive latency when connecting to the Internet. The network administration team submitted a change request to upgrade all the obsolete network equipment from 100Mbps to 1Gbps and It was approved. Which of the following documentation types will be needed to measure the success or failure of the upgrade project?

A. Network performance baseline

B. Network configuration documents

C. Equipment Implementation Instructions

D. Inventory management documentation

Question 6:

A network team has reopened multiple outages caused by unauthorized access to the IDF. Which of the following would BEST prevent this issue from reoccurring?

A. Video surveillance

B. Badge readers

C. Motion sensors

D. Tamper switches

Question 7:

A new network Technician is responsible for bringing a building onto the corporate network. The technician is not aware of the proper settings for the new switches. Which of the following should the technician reference to find these settings?

A. iDF/MDF documentation

B. Change management plan

C. Configuration baseline

D. Standard operating procedures

Question 8:

A technician needs to back up network devices to a central location to prepare for a natural disaster. Which of the following should the technician use?





Question 9:

A user has called the help desk with a problem reaching certain servers within the organization. The organization is using RFC 1819 for internal networks. The servers having trouble are configured with the following IP addresses: 192. 130.

135. 5 and 192. 130. 135. 6.

The user cannot connect to the correct servers. Which of the following explain why this is happening to the user?

A. The network has been configured with an inappropriate scheme

B. The serves are periodical/ going offline and rejecting the connection.

C. The default route in the user\’s computer points to the wrong upstream device.

D. The IPS system is flagging the traffic as suspicious and terminating the connection.

Question 10:

A network administrator plans to install network connectivity at a new remote office location. The administrator is concerned about how to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and reconfigure the remote router. The technician should use:

A. an SD card with a backup configuration

B. a TFTP server on the main network for backup configurations

C. a modem using POTS.

D. a second Ethernet interface for remote access.

Question 11:

A new employee is unable to access any network resources. All other users are able to access the network at 100Mbps No IP address, subnet mask or default gateway is displayed on the new employee\’s workstation The network administrator determinates all connectors using the correct standard Upon further investigation the network administrator also notices the following.

Wire map results from the user patch cable lo the patch cable connecting to the switch:


Pins 5 and 7 are short


The distance is 200ft (61m) Additional observations on the switch


The VLAN is set correctly


The port is not disabled


The duplex”;speed settings are correct


Port LEOs are off for that port.


The port is set to untagged.

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the new employee is having network issues?

A. Bad switchport

B. Incorrect pinout

C. Open/short

D. VLAN mismatch

E. Distance limitation

Question 12:

A technician recently installed a new wireless access point for a SOHO with the latest wireless technologies After the installation users with older laptops report their laptops no longer show the wireless network SSID, whereas users with newer equipment do not have this issue. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

A. The passphrase was changed

B. The wireless cards do not support 802 11ac.

C. The security type has been upgraded to WPA2

D. The administrator is not broadcasting the SSID

Question 13:

A network administrator is looking for an out-of-band method for accessing the console ports of a company\’s network devices when working remotely. Which of the following can be deployed as a solution?

A. A hub

B. Abridge

C. A modem


Question 14:

A network administrator is configuring a link-state routing protocol for traffic. Which of the following routing protocols should be implemented?




D. RIPv2

Question 15:

Which of the following would an organization MOST likely have employees sign before granting access to confidential data?


B. A BYOD policy



Publish the answer

See belowSee belowAAACAAAAAAABB

The complete CompTIA N10-008 dumps are available here: (Total Questions: 227 Q&A)[Updated 2022 Total Questions: 384 Q&A]

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Google Drive:

[Updated 2022]

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FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 | CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Exam Solution

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FC0-U61 Exam Information:

You should know that FC0-U61 is the exam code for the CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam, see the following for more basic information:

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: FC0-U61
Exam Name: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam
Certification: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+
Price: $130 USD
Length: 60 Minutes
Passing Score: 650 (on a scale of 900)
Number of Questions: Maximum of 75 questions per exam
Format: Multiple choice
languages: English

Share a part of FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 for free


A user wants to ensure port 3389 is open for remote desktop on a PC. Which of the following describes where the user should verify the port is open?

A. Antivirus
B. Anti-malware
C. Device Manager
D. Host firewall

Correct Answer: D


Which of the following BEST describes a technology that allows multiple users to create and edit reports at the same time?

A. Text file on a shared drive
B. Managed relational database
C. Informational intranet page
D. Locally installed productivity software

Correct Answer: B


Malware infections are being caused by websites. Which of the following settings will help prevent infections caused by Internet browsing?

A. Turn on private browsing
B. Delete browsing history on program close.
C. Notify when downloads are complete.
D. Configure prompting before downloading content.

Correct Answer: D


Which of the following would allow an application to run automatically when a computer is started?

A. Processes
B. Journaling
C. Services
D. Drivers

Correct Answer: A


A user connects a company computer to free WiFi at a local coffee shop. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

A. Information on this network is encrypted.
B. The information on the network can be seen by others.
C. It is safe to access company information using the network.
D. Private browsing mode protects the information on the network.

Correct Answer: B


Which of the following examples are MOST typical of fault tolerance practices used in business continuity planning? (Choose two.)

A. RAID storage
B. Uninterruptible power supplies
C. Off-site backups
D. Private cloud servers
E. Virtual-hosted desktops
F. Warm sites

Correct Answer: BC


Which of the following is a reason why complex passwords are required?

A. To encourage password variety
B. To prevent someone from guessing them
C. To make them harder to remember
D. To reduce social engineering attacks

Correct Answer: B


A security administrator is adding accounting features to a web application. Which of the following would be the BEST action?

A. Enhance the granularity of user permissions.
B. Enable an audit log.
C. Implement smart card login.
D. Adopt a procedure for adding accounts.

Correct Answer: B


A technician is installing a new wireless network and wants to secure the wireless network to prevent unauthorized access. Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure?


Correct Answer: D


A developer is in the process of creating a program and has started to draft the logic of the code. This process is an example of:

A. drawing a value stream map.
B. developing pseudocode.
C. identifying functions.
D. compiling the language.

Correct Answer: B


A schema is a critical part of which the following?

A. Relational database
B. Key/value database
C. Document database
D. NoSQL database

Correct Answer: A


Which of the following is a logical structure for storing files?

A. Folder
B. Extension
C. Permissions
D. Shortcut

Correct Answer: A


A systems administrator wants to run a script but does not have access to the graphical user interface. Which of the following can be used to run scripts?

A. Text editor
B. Word processor
C. Command line
D. Spreadsheet

Correct Answer: C


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View 213 FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 exam questions and answer: Click here

CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CS0-002 Exam Dumps

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Check CompTIA CS0-002 free dumps before taking the CS0-002 exam


An organization is attempting to harden its web servers and reduce the information that might be disclosed by potential attackers. A security analyst is reviewing vulnerability scan results from a recent web server scan.
Portions of the scan results are shown below:

Which of the following lines indicates information disclosure about the host that needs to be remediated?

A. Response: :\Documents\MarySmith\mailingList.pdf
B. Finding#5144322
C. First Time Detected 10 Nov 2015 09:00 GMT-0600
D. Access Path:
E. Request: GET

Correct Answer: A


A company has a popular shopping cart website hosted in geographically diverse locations. The company has started hosting static content on a content delivery network (CDN) to improve performance. The CDN provider has reported the company is occasionally sending attack traffic to other CDN-hosted targets.
Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?

A. The CDN provider has mistakenly performed a GeoIP mapping to the company.
B. The CDN provider has misclassified the network traffic as hostile.
C. A vulnerability scan has been tuned to exclude web assets hosted by the CDN.
D. The company has been breached, and customer PII is being exfiltrated to the CDN.

Correct Answer: D


A security analyst is assisting with a computer crime investigation and has been asked to secure a PC and deliver it to the forensic lab. Which of the following items would be MOST helpful to secure the PC? (Choose three.)

A. Tamper-proof seals
B. Faraday cage
C. Chain of custody form
D. Drive eraser
E. Write blockers
F. Network tap
G. Multimeter

Correct Answer: ABC


Which of the following stakeholders would need to be aware of an e-discovery notice received by the security office about an ongoing case within the manufacturing department?

A. Board of trustees
B. Human resources
C. Legal D. Marketing

Correct Answer: C


An analyst was investigating the attack that took place on the network. A user was able to access the system without proper authentication. Which of the following will the analyst recommend, related to management approaches, in order to control access? (Choose three.)


Correct Answer: ACE


A company\’s IDP/DLP solution triggered the following alerts:

Which of the following alerts should a security analyst investigate FIRST?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Correct Answer: D


A software assurance lab is performing a dynamic assessment on an application by automatically generating and inputting different, random data sets to attempt to cause an error/failure condition. Which of the following software assessment capabilities is the lab performing AND during which phase of the SDLC should this occur? (Select two.)

A. Fuzzing
B. Behavior modeling
C. Static code analysis
D. Prototyping phase
E. Requirements phase
F. Planning phase

Correct Answer: AD


A company has implemented WPA2, a 20-character minimum for the WiFi passphrase, and a new WiFi passphrase every 30 days, and has disabled SSID broadcast on all wireless access points. Which of the following is the company trying to mitigate?

A. Downgrade attacks
B. Rainbow tables
C. SSL pinning
D. Forced deauthentication

Correct Answer: A


A security operations team was alerted to abnormal DNS activity coming from a user\’s machine. The team performed a forensic investigation and discovered a host had been compromised. Malicious code was using DNS as a tunnel to extract data from the client machine, which had been leaked and transferred to an unsecured public Internet site. Which of the following BEST describes the attack?

A. Phishing
B. Pharming
C. Cache poisoning
D. Data exfiltration

Correct Answer: D


During a routine log review, a security analyst has found the following commands that cannot be identified from the Bash history log on the root user:

Which of the following commands should the analyst investigate FIRST?

A. Line 1
B. Line 2
C. Line 3
D. Line 4
E. Line 5
F. Line 6

Correct Answer: B


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368 XK0-004 dumps in preparation for CompTIA Linux+ exam success

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The questions for XK0-004 were last updated on April 18, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-13 out of 368 questions:


A systems administrator suspects a process with a PID of 2864 is consuming resources at an alarming rate. The administrator uses the command renice -n -5 -p2864, but it does not solve the issue. Which of the following commands should the administrator execute to correct the issue?

A. nice -n 5 -p 2864
B. nice -n -5 -p 2864
C. renice -n 10 -p 2864
D. renice -n -10 -p 2864

Correct Answer: C


A new HTTPS web service is being deployed on a server. Which of the following commands should the Linux administrator use to ensure traffic is able to flow through the system firewall to the new service?

A. iptables -I OUTPUT -p tcp –sport 443 -j ACCEPT
B. iptables -A INPUT -p tcp –dport 443 -j ACCEPT
C. iptables -I INPUT –dport 443 -j ACCEPT
D. iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp –dport 443 -j ACCEPT

Correct Answer: C


The following represents a partial listing of a user\’s .bashrc file: HISTSIZE=800 HISTFILESIZE=1000
umask 2002 HISTCONTROL=ignoreboth When the user opens a terminal, an error message appears: Octal number out of range Which of the following lines in the partial .bashrc should be modified to prevent the error from occurring?

C. umask 2002
D. HISTCONTROL=ignoreboth

Correct Answer: C


A user needs to modify the IP address of a laptop. Which of the following files can be used to configure the network interface named eth0?

A. /etc/sysconfig/network/interfaces.cnf
B. /system/config/interfaces
C. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0
D. /system/networking/ifconfig
E. /etc/interfaces/eth0.conf

Correct Answer: C


Users in the payroll department are not configured to use DNS due to security concerns. The users ask the junior Linux administrator to configure their workstations to access the payroll server at by the name “Payroll”.
Which of the following commands should the administrator issue meet this request?

A. echo “nameserver #Payroll” >> /etc/resolv.conf
B. echo “net.ipv4.ip_dynaddr= Payroll” >> /etc/sysctl.conf
C. echo “ Payroll” >> /etc/hosts
D. echo `IPADDR=”″ #Payroll\’ >> /etc/network/interface

Correct Answer: C


An administrator receives a USB drive and wants to make an exact copy of the disk before starting to work on it. One of the partitions on the USB drive was mounted as /dev/sdc1. Which of the following commands should the administrator use?

A. dd if=/dev/sdc of=~/usb_copy.img bs=512
B. dd if=/dev/sdc1 of=~/usb_copy.img count=1024
C. dd if=/dev/sdc1 of=~/usb_copy.img bs=1024
D. dd of=/dev/sdc if=~/usb_copy.img bs=1M

Correct Answer: C


A Linux administrator is helping the security team troubleshoot an SELinux policy violation incident. Which of the following would be the BEST utility command to display SELinux violation and AVC denial messages?

A. journalctl | grep sealert
B. sealert -a /var/log/audit/audit.log
C. aureport | grep AVC
D. cat /var/log/messages | grep selinux

Correct Answer: B


A server is almost out of free memory and is becoming unresponsive. Which of the following sets of commands will BEST mitigate the issue?

A. free, fack, partprobe
B. lsof, lvcreate, mdadm
C. df, du, rmmod
D. fdisk, mkswap, swapon -a

Correct Answer: D


A Linux engineer is troubleshooting a newly added SCSI device for a Linux server that needed more disk space without rebooting. The engineer discovers that the new device is not visible by the Linux kernel in fdisk -l output. Which of the following commands should be used to rescan the entire SCSI bus?

A. echo “- – -” > /sys/class/scsi_host/host0/scan
B. echo \’ \’ > /sys/class/scsi_host/host0/scan
C. echo “- – -” > /sys/scsi/scsi_host/host0/scan
D. echo “scan” > /sys/class/scsi_host/host0/scan

Correct Answer: A


A systems administrator has set up third-party log aggregation agents across several cloud instances. The systems administrator wants to create a dashboard of failed SSH attempts and the usernames used. Which of the following files should be watched by the agents?

A. /var/log/audit/audit.log
B. /var/log/kern.log
C. /var/log/monitor
D. /etc/rsyslog.conf

Correct Answer: A


An administrator needs to mount the shared NFS file system testhost:/testvolume to mount point/mnt/testvol and make the mount persistent after reboot. Which of the following BEST demonstrates the commands necessary to accomplish this task?

xk0-004 q11

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A


A junior systems administrator needs to make a packet capture file that will only capture HTTP protocol data to a file called test.pcap.
Which of the following commands would allow the administrator to accomplish this task?

A. netcat -p 80 -w test.pcap
B. tshark -r test.pcap -o http
C. tcpdump -i eth0 port 80 -r test.pcap
D. tcpdump -i eth0 port 80 -w test.pcap

Correct Answer: B


A server, which is used to collect data about the network and data center environment via SNMP, is running out of space. Which of the following should the server administrator implement to reduce disk utilization?

A. journald
B. Snapshots
C. logrotate
D. tar -cvf

Correct Answer: B


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SY0-601 Dumps [2022.4] for CompTIA Security+ 2022 Exam Purposes

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[Practice Test] CompTIA Security+ 2022 SY0-601 Free Dumps Read First

The questions for SY0-601 were last updated on April 25, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-13 out of 572 questions:


A company was recently breached Part of the company\’s new cybersecurity strategy is to centralize the logs from all security devices Which of the following components forwards the logs to a central source?

A. Log enrichment
B. Log aggregation
C. Log parser
D. Log collector

Correct Answer: D


An end-user reports a computer has been acting slower than normal for a few weeks, During an investigation, an analyst determines the system 3 sending the users email address and a ten-digit number ta an IP address once a day.
The only recent log entry regarding the user\’s computer is the following:

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The end-user purchased and installed 2 PUP from a web browser.
B. 4 bot on the computer is ruled forcing passwords against a website.
C. A hacker Is attempting to exfiltrate sensitive data.
D. Ransomware is communicating with a command-and-control server.

Correct Answer: A


An enterprise needs to keep cryptographic keys in a safe manner. Which of the following network appliances can achieve this goal?


Correct Answer: A

A hardware security module (HSM) is a security device you can add to a system to manage, generate, and securely store cryptographic keys. High-performance HSMs are external devices connected to a network using TCP/IP. Smaller HSMs come as expansion cards you install within a server, or as devices, you plug into computer ports.


An attack relies on an end-user visiting a website the end-user would typically visit, however, the site is compromised and uses vulnerabilities in the end user’s browser to deploy malicious software. Which of the blowing types of attack does this describe?

A. Smishing
B. Whaling
C. Watering hole
D. Phishing

Correct Answer: C


A financial analyst is expecting an email containing sensitive information from a client. When the email arrives, the analyst receives an error and is unable to open the encrypted message. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The S/MME plug-in is not enabled.
B. The SSL certificate has expired.
C. Secure IMAP was not implemented
D. POP3S is not supported.

Correct Answer: A


To reduce costs and overhead, an organization wants to move from an on-premises email solution to a cloud-based email solution. At this time, no other services will be moving. Which of the following cloud models would BEST meet the needs of the organization?

A. Maas
B. laaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS

Correct Answer: D


A company recently added a DR site and is redesigning the network. Users at the DR site are having issues browsing websites.
Click on each firewall to do the following:
Deny cleartext web traffic.
Ensure secure management protocols are used.
Resolve issues at the DR site.
The ruleset order cannot be modified due to outside constraints.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Firewall 1
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

In Firewall 1, HTTP inbound Action should be DENY. As shown below


A company Is concerned about its security after a red-team exercise. The report shows the team was able to reach the critical servers due to the SMB being exposed to the Internet and running NTLMV1. Which of the following BEST explains the findings?

A. Default settings on the servers
B. Unsecured administrator accounts
C. Open ports and services
D. Weak Data encryption

Correct Answer: C


Several employees have noticed other bystanders can clearly observe a terminal where passcodes are being entered.
Which of the following can be eliminated with the use of a privacy screen?

A. Shoulder surfing
B. Spear phishing
C. Impersonation attack
D. Card cloning

Correct Answer: A


Customers reported their antivirus software flagged one of the company\’s primary software products as suspicious. The company\’s Chief Information Security Officer has tasked the developer with determining a method to create a trust model between the software and the customer\’s antivirus software. Which of the following would be the BEST solution?

A. Code signing
B. Domain validation
C. Extended validation
D. Self-signing

Correct Answer: C


Which of the following corporate policies is used to help prevent employee fraud and to detect system log modifications or other malicious activity based on tenure?

A. Background checks
B. Mandatory vacation
C. Social media analysis
D. Separation of duties

Correct Answer: B


A company\’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently warned the security manager that the company\’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is planning to publish a controversial option article in a national newspaper, which may result in new cyberattacks Which of the following would be BEST for the security manager to use in a threat model?

A. Hacktivists
B. White-hat hackers
C. Script kiddies
D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: A

Hacktivists – “a person who gains unauthorized access to computer files or networks in order to further social or political ends.”


A company has three technicians who share the same credentials for troubleshooting the system. Every time credentials are changed, the new ones are sent by email to all three technicians. The security administrator has become aware of this situation and wants to implement a solution to mitigate the risk. Which of the following is the BEST solution for a company to implement?

A. SSO authentication
B. SSH keys
C. OAuth authentication
D. Password vaults

Correct Answer: A


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Verify CompTIA Project+ pk0-004 Free Dumps Questions


Which of the following project management tools provides an authoritative source of the project performance guidelines?


Correct Answer: A



Which of the following is MOST effective for projects that require internal reorganization?

A. Vision
B. Right of passage
C. Command
D. Evidentiary
E. Segmentation

Correct Answer: A


A client has requested a project be completed ahead of schedule. The client understands the triple constraints and agrees to expand the defect tolerance.
Which of the following should the PM do NEXT?

A. Crash the schedule.
B. Notify the project team.
C. Initiate a change request.
D. Accept the risk.

Correct Answer: B


A fire occurred in the production facility over the weekend, affecting the machinery being used to produce a deliverable.
No injuries were reported.
Which of the following is MOST appropriate for the project manager to do NEXT?

A. Refer to the contingency plan
B. Conduct an immediate emergency team meeting
C. Perform a SWOT analysis
D. Implement the risk response plan

Correct Answer: A


Which of the following techniques modifies the schedule based upon resource constraints?

A. Critical Chain Method
B. Critical Path Method
C. Arrow Diagramming Method
D. Precedence Diagramming Method

Correct Answer: A


Objectives and tasks are equally assigned by two different managers. Which of the following BEST describes this organization type?

B. Functional
C. Matrix
D. Projectized

Correct Answer: A


During a project status meeting, the project manager states the project is running ahead of schedule. However, the executive committee, which is unfamiliar with the project manager\’s work, does not think it will finish on time.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. personal preferences
B. Interorganizational differences
C. Relationship building
D. Specific communication

Correct Answer: D


A project team is showing off a new product prototype at a trade show, and potential customers are requesting more information.
Which of the following is the MOST efficient way to provide more information?

A. Printed media
B. Email
C. Meeting
D. Video conference

Correct Answer: A


A project manager recently joined a projectized organization and is having many issues on five different projects. Which of the following risk activities should be performed FIRST? (Choose two.)

A. Identify
B. Coordinate
C. Qualify

D. Brainstorm
E. Mitigate
F. Assign

Correct Answer: AB


Which of the following roles has approval authority for project funding?

A. Champion
B. Chief Financial Officer (CFO)
C. Project Management Office (PMO)
D. Sponsor

Correct Answer: D



A project manager receives an initial project assignment.
Which of the following documents is MOST likely to indicate the organizational structure for the project?

A. Communication management plan
B. Baseline
C. Business case
D. Organizational breakdown structure

Correct Answer: C


A team member learns that an assigned task is not due until the very end of the project. Moreover, the team member is not aware of any predecessor tasks dependent on completing the assigned task. Which of the following does the project manager use to decide if the team member can start the task later or earlier?

A. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is a critical dependency.
B. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is a discretionary dependency.
C. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is a real dependency.
D. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is an external dependency.

Correct Answer: B



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Real Dumps Questions For CAS-004 CASP+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner U2022.3

The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner U2022.3 CAS-004 CASP+ exam stands for the CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner certification exam. CASP+ CAS-004 Dumps exam questions for you to solve cover the technical knowledge and skills required to architect, engineer, integrate, and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise while considering the impact of governance, risk, and compliance requirements all skills to prepare. CAS-004 Dumps questions are online to ensure you can pass the CAS-004 CASP+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner U2022.3 exam on the first try.

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A security analyst receives an alert from the SIEM regarding unusual activity on an authorized public SSH jump server.

To further investigate, the analyst pulls the event logs directly from /var/log/auth.log: graphic.ssh_auth_log.

Which of the following actions would BEST address the potential risks by the activity in the logs?

A. Alerting the misconfigured service account password
B. Modifying the AllowUsers configuration directive
C. Restricting external port 22 access
D. Implementing host-key preferences


Within change management, winch of the following ensures functions are earned out by multiple employees?

A. Least privilege
B. Mandatory vacation
C. Separator of duties
D. Job rotation


A security administrator configured the account policies per security implementation guidelines. However, the accounts still appear to be susceptible to brute-force attacks. The following settings meet the existing compliance guidelines:

1. Must have a minimum of 15 characters
2. Must use one number
3. Must use one capital letter
4. Must not be one of the last 12 passwords used

Which of the following policies should be added to provide additional security?

A. Shared accounts
B. Password complexity
C. Account lockout
D. Password history
E. Time-based logins



A pharmaceutical company recently experienced a security breach within its customer-facing web portal. The attackers performed a SQL injection attack and exported tables from the company\’s managed database, exposing customer information.

The company hosts the application with a CSP utilizing the IaaS model. Which of the following parties is ultimately responsible for the breach?

A. The pharmaceutical company
B. The cloud software provider
C. The web portal software vendor
D. The database software vendor


Clients are reporting slowness when attempting to access a series of load-balanced APIs that do not require authentication. The servers that host the APIs are showing heavy CPU utilization. No alerts are found on the WAFs sitting in front of the APIs.

Which of the following should a security engineer recommend to BEST remedy the performance issues in a timely manner?

A. Implement rate limiting on the API.
B. Implement geoblocking on the WAF.
C. Implement OAuth 2.0 on the API.
D. Implement input validation on the API.


A security architect for a large, multinational manufacturer needs to design and implement a security solution to monitor traffic.

When designing the solution, which of the following threats should the security architect focus on to prevent attacks against the ?? network?

A. Packets that are the wrong size or length
B. Use of any non-DNP3 communication on a DNP3 port
C. Multiple solicited responses over time
D. Application of an unsupported encryption algorithm


A company publishes several APIs for customers and is required to use keys to segregate customer data sets.

Which of the following would be the BEST to use to store customer keys?

A. A trusted platform module
B. A hardware security module
C. A localized key store
D. A public key infrastructure


A security tester is performing a black-box assessment of an RFID access control system. The tester has a handful of RFID tags and is able to access the reader. However, the tester cannot disassemble the reader because it is in use by the company.

Which of the following shows the steps the tester should take to assess the RFID access control system in the correct order?


  1. Attempt to eavesdrop and replay RFID communications.
  2. Determine the protocols being used between the tag and the reader.
  3. Retrieve the RFID tag identifier and manufacturer details.
  4. Take apart an RFID tag and analyze the chip.


  1. Determine the protocols being used between the tag and the reader.
  2. Take apart an RFID tag and analyze the chip.
  3. Retrieve the RFID tag identifier and manufacturer details.
  4. Attempt to eavesdrop and replay RFID communications.


  1. Retrieve the RFID tag identifier and manufacturer details.
  2. Determine the protocols is being used between the tag and the reader.
  3. Attempt to eavesdrop and replay RFID communications.
  4. Take apart an RFID tag and analyze the chip.


  1. Take apart an RFID tag and analyze the chip.
  2. Retrieve the RFID tag identifier and manufacturer details.
  3. Determine the protocols being used between the tag and the reader.
  4. Attempt to eavesdrop and replay RFID communications.


A penetration tester obtained root access on a Windows server and, according to the rules of engagement, is permitted to perform post-exploitation for persistence.

Which of the following techniques would BEST support this?

A. Configuring system services to run automatically at startup
B. Creating a backdoor
C. Exploiting an arbitrary code execution exploit
D. Moving laterally to a more authoritative server/service


A small company needs to reduce its operating costs. vendors have proposed solutions, which all focus on the management of the company\’s website and services. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) insists all available resources in the proposal must be dedicated, but managing a private cloud is not an option.

Which of the following is the BEST solution for this company?

A. Community cloud service model
B. Multinency SaaS
C. Single-tenancy SaaS
D. On-premises cloud service model


Which of the following represents the MOST significant benefit of implementing a passwordless authentication solution?

A. Biometric authenticators are immutable.
B. The likelihood of account compromise is reduced.
C. Zero trust is achieved.
D. Privacy risks are minimized.



A shipping company that is trying to eliminate entire classes of threats is developing an SELinux policy to ensure its custom Android devices are used exclusively for package tracking. After compiling and implementing the policy, in which of the following modes must the company ensure the devices are configured to run?

A. Protecting
B. Permissive
C. Enforcing
D. Mandatory


Publish the answer:


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Which of the following scenarios BEST describes a risk reduction technique?

A. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company purchases insurance and is no longer concerned about losses from data breaches.

B. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company implements a policy to train users on a more secure method of operation.

C. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company changes as method of operation

D. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the Chief Information Officer (CIO) decides to sign off on the risk.



Joe, an employee, is transferring departments and is providing copies of his files to a network share folder for his previous team to access. Joe is granting read-write-execute permissions to his manager but giving read-only access to the rest of the team. Which of the following access controls is Joe using?




A financial organization has adopted a new secure, encrypted document-sharing application to help with its customer loan process. Some important PII needs to be shared across this new platform, but it is getting blocked by the DLP systems. Which of the following actions will BEST allow the PII to be shared with the secure application without compromising the organization\\’s security posture?

A. Configure the DLP policies to allow all PII
B. Configure the firewall to allow all ports that are used by this application
C. Configure the antivirus software to allow the application
D. Configure the DLP policies to whitelist this application with the specific PII
E. Configure the application to encrypt the PII



A network administrator is setting up wireless access points in all the conference rooms and wants to authenticate device using PKI. Which of the following should the administrator configure?

A. A captive portal
C. 802.1X



A cloud administrator is configuring five compute instances under the same subnet in a VPC Three instances are required to communicate with one another, and the other two must he logically isolated from all other instances in the VPC. Which of the following must the administrator configure to meet this requirement?

A. One security group
B. Two security groups
C. Three security groups
D. Five security groups



Which of the following would a European company interested in implementing a technical, hands-on set of security standards MOST likely choose?

B. CIS controls
C. ISO 27001
D. ISO 37000



Several employees return to work the day after attending an industry trade show. That same day, the security manager notices several malware alerts coming from each of the employee\\’s workstations. The security manager investigates but finds no signs of an attack on the perimeter firewall or the NIDS. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the malware alerts?

A. A worm that has propagated itself across the intranet, which was initiated by presentation media
B. A fileless virus that is contained on a vCard that is attempting to execute an attack
C. A Trojan that has passed through and executed malicious code on the hosts
D. A USB flash drive that is trying to run malicious code but is being blocked by the host firewall



A security manager for a retailer needs to reduce the scope of a project to comply with PCI DSS. The PCI data is located in different offices than where credit cards are accepted. All the offices are connected via MPLS back to the primary datacenter. Which of the following should the security manager implement to achieve the objective?

A. Segmentation
B. Containment
C. Geofencing
D. Isolation



A technician needs to prevent data loss in a laboratory. The laboratory is not connected to any external networks. Which of the following methods would BEST prevent the exfiltration of data? (Select TWO).

B. Drive encryption
C. Network firewall
D. File level encryption
E. USB blocker



An organization relies on third-party video conferencing to conduct daily business. Recent security changes now require all remote workers to utilize a VPN to corporate resources. Which of the following would BEST maintain high-quality video conferencing while minimizing latency when connected to the VPN?

A. Using geographic diversity to have VPN terminators closer to end users
B. Utilizing split tunneling so only traffic for corporate resources is encrypted
C. Purchasing higher-bandwidth connections to meet the increased demand
D. Configuring QoS properly on the VPN accelerators



A user is concerned that a web application will not be able to handle unexpected or random input without crashing. Which of the following BEST describes the type of testing the user should perform?

A. Code signing
B. Fuzzing
C. Manual code review
D. Dynamic code analysis



While investigating a data leakage incident, a security analyst reviews access control to cloud-hosted data. The following information was presented in a security posture report.

sy0-601 q12

Based on the report, which of the following was the MOST likely attack vector used against the company?

A. Spyware
B. Logic bomb
C. Potentially unwanted programs
D. Supply chain

Verify the answer:


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A user connects to a wireless network but cannot access the Internet. A technician investigates the issue and gathers
the following data:

comptia 220-1001 exam questions q1

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The SSID cannot have an exclamation point or an asterisk in it.

B. The signal strength is too low for a high-quality connection.

C. WPA2 passwords require A-Z characters and must be more than ten characters long.

D. The subnet mask is incorrect for the IP address.

E. The frequency is incorrect for 802. 11ac wireless


A virtual environment in which an application uses memory and a processor from a provider based on a leased rate that depends on the number of resources used per month is referred to as:

A. virtual application streaming service.

B. metered service.

C. resource pooling.

D. SaaS.


A user reports a complete loss of data.

A technician determines the data was stored on an external drive and the drive light is working properly. Which of the following steps should the technician perform NEXT?

A. Configure a temporary drive and install backup software.

B. Reseat the memory, reboot the computer and check the logs.

C. Replace the drive cable and run diagnostics on the drive.

D. Boot into BIOS and verify the onboard drive size and settings.


A technician was called to check an unexpected clicking noise on a desktop that has become more frequent every time
a video editing application is loaded.

The system fans have been replaced, but the clicking noise remains.

Diagnostics have been run on the video card.

Which of the following should be the technician do FIRST?

A. Replace the hard drive.

B. Replace the video card.

C. Do a System Restore.

D. Perform a full data backup.

E. Scan the system for viruses.


A developer wants to add a Windows 10 64-bit VM with the minimum system requirements to a virtual host workstation.

The virtual host is running Windows Server 2008 R2 and has 24GB of RAM, a 1TB hard drive, and a Gigabit Ethernet
NIC with Cat 5e cabling.

The current configuration of VMs is as follows:

  1. Windows 7 VM with 4GB RAM and 200GB HDD
  2. Linux VM with 16GB RAM and 200GB HDD
  3. Linux VM with 2GB RAM and 100GB HDD

Which of the following should the technician recommend to the developer FIRST?

A. Increase the HDD in the virtual host

B. Install an additional NIC and configure teaming

C. Upgrade the network cabling to Cat 6

D. Increase the memory in the virtual host


Which of the following devices is used to implement network security policies for an environment?

A. Firewall

B. managed switch

C. Repeater

D. Gateway


A customer accidentally drops a laptop while it is charging.

The next day, the customer notices the laptop will not turn on and calls a technician to investigate.

The technician confirms the laptop will not turn on and calls a technician to investigate.

The technician confirms the laptop will not turn on even though it is connected to the power adapter.

Which of the following components is the MOST likely cause of this behavior?

A. Power adapter

B. Battery

C. DC jack

D. Hard drive


Which of the following wireless networking protocols includes a standardized version of the technology known as

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11ac

C. 802.11 n

D. Bluetooth

E. Z-Wave


A technician is troubleshooting a DLP projector that is connected to a PC.

The projector accepts and displays a video signal, but the output image is covered with white dots.

Which of the following actions will MOST likely resolve the issue?

A. Decrease the video card refresh rate.

B. Change the projector\’s resolution.

C. Replace the projector or imaging system.

D. Remove dust from the projector\’s lens.


Which of the following network server types ads as an intermediary between a client workstation and another server to
improve performance through caching and provide content filtering?


B. Print

C. Proxy



An administrator notices the RAID 5 array is reporting a degraded health message.

It contains three HDDs. A technician replaces the faulty HDD with a new one.

but users then report access to the file share is not as fast as it used to be.

Which of the following is MOST likely preventing the RAID array from operating optimally?

A. The mirrored set is broken.

B. Write caching has been turned on.

C. The wrong drive was replaced.

D. The RAID array is rebuilding.


A customer wants to store archived data on inexpensive optical media that will then be placed in a safe.

According to the customer, each runoff of data will be between 2GB and 3GB.

Which of the following devices does a technician need to install for the customer?

A. DVD-RW drive

B. CD-RW drive

C. Blu-ray drive

D. M.2 drive

E. NVMe drive


A technician is upgrading the RAM in a server-grade laptop for a company\’s Chief Execute Officer (CEO).

The CEO cannot afford any downtime.

Which of the following is the BEST type of memory module to purchase?



C. Parity

D. Dual-channel

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