2022 Free Latest Lead4pass IT Exam Dumps

Lead4Pass 312-50v11 dumps with PDF and VCE latest update

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Free sharing of 15 EC-COUNCIL 312-50v11 Dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

When configuring wireless on his home router, Javik disables SSID broadcast. He leaves authentication “open” but sets the SSID to a 32-character string of random letters and numbers.

What is an accurate assessment of this scenario from a security perspective?

A. Since the SSID is required in order to connect, the 32-character string is sufficient to prevent brute-force attacks.

B. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents 802.11 beacons from being transmitted from the access point, resulting in a valid setup leveraging “security through obscurity”.

C. It is still possible for a hacker to connect to the network after sniffing the SSID from a successful wireless association.

D. Javik\’s router is still vulnerable to wireless hacking attempts because the SSID broadcast setting can be enabled using a specially crafted packet sent to the hardware address of the access point.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

what are common files on a web server that can be misconfigured and provide useful Information for a hacker such as verbose error messages?

A. httpd.conf

B. administration.config

C. idq.dll

D. php.ini

Correct Answer: D

The php.ini file may be a special file for PHP. it\’s where you declare changes to your PHP settings. The server is already configured with standard settings for PHP, which your site will use by default. Unless you would like to vary one or more settings, there\’s no got to create or modify a php.ini file. If you\’d wish to make any changes to settings, please do so through the MultiPHP INI Editor.

New Question 3:

An attacker identified that a user and an access point are both compatible with WPA2 and WPA3 encryption. The attacker installed a rogue access point with only WPA2 compatibility in the vicinity and forced the victim to go through the WPA2 four-way handshake to get connected. After the connection was established, the attacker used automated tools to crack WPA2-encrypted messages. What is the attack performed in the above scenario?

A. Timing-based attack

B. Side-channel attack

C. Downgrade security attack

D. Cache-based attack

Correct Answer: B

New Question 4:

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Packet Sniffers operate on the Layer 1 of the OSI model.

B. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 2 of the OSI model.

C. Packet Sniffers operate on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model.

D. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 3 of the OSI model.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 5:

Ralph, a professional hacker, targeted Jane, who had recently bought new systems for her company. After a few days, Ralph contacted Jane while masquerading as a legitimate customer support executive, informing that her systems need to be serviced for proper functioning and that customer support will send a computer technician. Jane promptly replied positively. Ralph entered Jane\’s company using this opportunity and gathered sensitive information by scanning terminals for passwords, searching for important documents in desks, and rummaging bins. What is the type of attack technique Ralph used on jane?

A. Dumpster diving

B. Eavesdropping

C. Shoulder surfing

D. impersonation

Correct Answer: D

New Question 6:

Leverox Solutions hired Arnold, a security professional, for the threat intelligence process. Arnold collected information about specific threats against the organization. From this information, he retrieved contextual information about security events and incidents that helped him disclose potential risks and gain insight into attacker methodologies. He collected the information from sources such as humans, social media, and chat rooms as well as from events that resulted in cyberattacks. In this process, he also prepared a report that includes identified malicious activities, recommended courses of action, and warnings for emerging attacks. What is the type of threat intelligence collected by Arnold in the above scenario?

A. Strategic threat intelligence

B. Tactical threat intelligence

C. Operational threat intelligence

D. Technical threat intelligence

Correct Answer: C

New Question 7:

Which tool can be used to silently copy files from USB devices?

A. USB Grabber

B. USB Snoopy

C. USB Sniffer

D. Use Dumper

Correct Answer: D

New Question 8:

Which of the following algorithms can be used to guarantee the integrity of messages being sent, in transit, or stored?

A. symmetric algorithms

B. asymmetric algorithms

C. hashing algorithms

D. integrity algorithms

Correct Answer: C

New Question 9:

Don, a student, came across a gaming app in a third-party app store and Installed it. Subsequently, all the legitimate apps in his smartphone were replaced by deceptive applications that appeared legitimate. He also received many advertisements on his smartphone after Installing the app. What is the attack performed on Don in the above scenario?

A. SMS phishing attack

B. SIM card attack

C. Agent Smith attack

D. Clickjacking

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

Bob, your senior colleague, has sent you a mail regarding a deal with one of the clients. You are requested to accept the offer and you oblige. After 2 days, Bab denies that he had ever sent a mail. What do you want to “”know”” to prove yourself that it was Bob who had send a mail?

A. Non-Repudiation

B. Integrity

C. Authentication

D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: A

New Question 11:

John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization. In the attack process, the professional hacker Installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the vktims and scanned several machines on the same network to Identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation. What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?

A. Proxy scanner

B. Agent-based scanner

C. Network-based scanner

D. Cluster scanner

Correct Answer: B

New Question 12:

Gerard, a disgruntled ex-employee of Sunglass IT Solutions, targets this organization to perform sophisticated attacks and bring down its reputation in the market. To launch the attacks process, he performed DNS footprinting to gather information about ONS servers and to identify the hosts connected in the target network. He used an automated tool that can retrieve information about DNS zone data including DNS domain names, computer names. IP addresses. DNS records, and network Who is records. He further exploited this information to launch other sophisticated attacks. What is the tool employed by Gerard in the above scenario?

A. Knative

B. zANTI

C. Towelroot

D. Bluto

Correct Answer: D

New Question 13:

Morris, an attacker, wanted to check whether the target AP is in a locked state. He attempted using

different utilities to identify WPS-enabled APs in the target wireless network. Ultimately, he succeeded with

one special command-line utility.

Which of the following command-line utilities allowed Morris to discover the WPS-enabled APs?

A. wash

B. ntptrace

C. macof

D. net View

Correct Answer: A

New Question 14:

E-mail scams and mail fraud are regulated by which of the following?

A. 18 U.S.C. par. 1030 Fraud and Related activity in connection with Computers

B. 18 U.S.C. par. 1029 Fraud and Related activity in connection with Access Devices

C. 18 U.S.C. par. 1362 Communication Lines, Stations, or Systems

D. 18 U.S.C. par. 2510 Wire and Electronic Communications Interception and Interception of Oral Communication

Correct Answer: A

New Question 15:

jane, an ethical hacker. Is testing a target organization\’s web server and website to identity security loopholes. In this process, she copied the entire website and its content on a local drive to view the complete profile of the site\’s directory structure, file structure, external links, images, web pages, and so on. This information helps jane map the website\’s directories and gain valuable information. What is the attack technique employed by Jane in the above scenario?

A. website mirroring

B. Session hijacking

C. Web cache poisoning

D. Website defacement

Correct Answer: A

…

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Cisco 100-490 dumps: serves all 100-490 RSTECH exam candidates

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New Question 1:

What is the correct IPv6 address notation?

A. 2001:0DB8::/128

B. 2001:0DB8:0::

C. 2001:0DB8::1:1:1:1:1

D. 2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B

Correct Answer: D

New Question 2:

Which two statements about Telnet and SSH are true? (Choose two.)

A. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.

B. SSH uses the well-known TCP port 23 for its communication.

C. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.

D. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.

E. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 3:

Which address facilitates the routing of packets over an IP network?

A. physical

B. transport

C. network

D. MAC

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:

Which two IPv4 addresses can be assigned to a host computer? (Choose two.)

A. 255.255.255.255

B. 10.1.1.20

C. 0.0.0.0

D. 192.168.10.15

E. 292.10.3.4

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 5:

Which device is a DTE device?

A. CSU/DSU

B. router

C. cable modem

D. DSL modem

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Which layer of the OSI model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?

A. presentation

B. data link

C. network

D. transport

Correct Answer: B

New Question 7:

Which command shows the status of power supplies and sensor temperatures?

A. show hardware

B. show module

C. show environment

D. show diag

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/m/en_us/techdoc/dc/reference/cli/n5k/commands/show-environment.html

New Question 8:

What are two standard fiber-optic connectors? (Choose two.)

A. Lucent

B. rollover

C. subscriber

D. multidimension

E. crossover

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 9:

Which two pairs of LAN Ethernet devices use an RJ-45 straight-through cable? (Choose two.)

A. switch-to-switch

B. switch-to-router

C. switch-to-hub

D. router-to-router

E. switch-to-server

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 10:

Which two features are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

A. consists of a single strand of glass fiber

B. has higher attenuation that multimode fiber

C. carries a higher bandwidth that multimode fiber

D. costs less than multimode fiber

E. operates over less distance than multimode fiber

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 11:

Which type of transceiver module is used for 40 Gigabit Ethernet connectivity?

A. SFP+

B. GBIC

C. QSFP+

D. XFP

Correct Answer: C

New Question 12:

What is the line speed of a DS0 in North America?

A. 16 kbps

B. 32 kbps

C. 64 kbps

D. 128 kbps

Correct Answer: C

New Question 13:

Which two statements about a SmartJack are true? (Choose two.)

A. It provides signal conversion.

B. It acts as a concentration point for dial-in and dial-out connections.

C. It operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.

D. It provides channel testing.

E. It regenerates the signal to compensate for signal degradation from line transmission.

Correct Answer: AE

New Question 14:

The pins on an RJ-45 cable plug are numbered from 1 through 8. When the metal pins of the plug are facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets of pins are looped on an RJ-45 56K loopback plug? (Choose two.)

A. pins 2 and 7

B. pins 2 and 8

C. pins 2 and 5

D. pins 1 and 7

E. pins 1 and 4

Correct Answer: CE

New Question 15:

Which type of memory is used to permanently store Cisco IOS Software?

A. NVRAM

B. flash

C. SRAM

D. DRAM

Correct Answer: A

…

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August 30, 2022 by admin 100-490 RSTECH exam CCT Routing and Switching Cisco Cisco 100-490 dumps Cisco 100-490 dumps exam questions and answers Cisco 100-490 PDF

Prepare for the 300-720 SESA exam: Use the newly updated 300-720 SESA dumps

Lead4pass has updated 300-720 SESA dumps with 94 latest exam questions and answers to help you prepare for the 300-720 SESA exam and successfully pass one of the CCNP Security Concentration exams (300-720 SESA exam).

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New Question 1:

Which SMTP extension does Cisco ESA support for email security?

A. ETRN

B. UTF8SMTP

C. PIPELINING

D. STARTTLS

◉ View Answer

New Question 2:

Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting into the Cisco ESA?

A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering

B. Connection Reputation Filtering

C. Talos Reputation Filtering

D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering

◉ View Answer

New Question 3:

Which benefit does enabling external spam quarantine on Cisco SMA provide?

A. ability to back up spam quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console

B. access to the spam quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete

C. ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate

D. ability to consolidate spam quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESA to one central console

◉ View Answer

New Question 4:

When email authentication is configured on Cisco ESA, which two key types should be selected on the signing profile? (Choose two.)

A. DKIM

B. Public Keys

C. Domain Keys

D. Symmetric Keys

E. Private Keys

◉ View Answer

New Question 5:

What are two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject

B. workqueue

C. action

D. delivery

E. quarantine

◉ View Answer

New Question 6:

Which two action types are performed by Cisco ESA message filters? (Choose two.)

A. non-final actions

B. filter actions

C. discard actions

D. final actions

E. quarantine actions

◉ View Answer

New Question 7:

Which setting affects the aggressiveness of spam detection?

A. protection level

B. spam threshold

C. spam timeout

D. maximum depth of recursion scan

◉ View Answer

New Question 8:

What is the order of virus scanning when multilayer antivirus scanning is configured?

A. The default engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

B. The Sophos engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

C. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the default engine scans for viruses second.

D. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the Sophos engine scans for viruses second.

◉ View Answer

If you configure multi-layer anti-virus scanning, the Cisco appliance performs virus scanning with the McAfee engine first and the Sophos engine second. It scans messages using both engines, unless the McAfee engine detects a virus. If the McAfee engine detects a virus, the Cisco appliance performs the anti-virus actions (repairing, quarantining, etc.) defined for the mail policy.

New Question 9:

What are two prerequisites for implementing undesirable URL protection in Cisco ESA? (Choose two.)

A. Enable outbreak filters.

B. Enable email relay.

C. Enable antispam scanning.

D. Enable port bouncing.

E. Enable antivirus scanning.

◉ View Answer

New Question 10:

Which suboption must be selected when LDAP is configured for Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication?

A. Designate as the active query

B. Update Frequency

C. Server Priority

D. Entity ID

◉ View Answer

New Question 11:

What is the maximum message size that can be configured for encryption on the Cisco ESA?

A. 20 MB

B. 25 MB

C. 15 MB

D. 30 MB

◉ View Answer

New Question 12:

An analyst creates a new content dictionary to use with Forged Email Detection. Which entry will be added into the dictionary?

A. mycompany.com

B. Alpha Beta

C. ^Alpha\ Beta$

D. [email protected]

◉ View Answer

New Question 13:

Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safelist?

A. message filter

B. antivirus scanning

C. outbreak filter

D. antispam scanning

◉ View Answer

New Question 14:

Which two query types are available when an LDAP profile is configured? (Choose two.)

A. proxy consolidation

B. user

C. recursive

D. group

E. routing

◉ View Answer

New Question 15:

Which action is a valid fallback when a client certificate is unavailable during SMTP authentication on Cisco ESA?

A. LDAP Query

B. SMTP AUTH

C. SMTP TLS

D. LDAP BIND

◉ View Answer

…

Verify the answer:

Numbers:

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

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Use the latest 500-560 dumps to help you pass the Cisco OCSE certification exam

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More detailed 500-560 OCSE certification information:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 500-560
Exam Name: Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions Exam
Certification: Cisco Express Specialization – Networking Track
Duration: 60 minutes
Languages: English
Price:
Number of Questions: 45 – 55
500-560 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/500-560.html (Total Questions: 50 Q&A)

Cisco 500-560 exam questions online practice test:

Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

What is one feature of MV cameras that allows users to optimize video retention?

A. zoom lens

B. motion-based retention

C. low bit rate and frame rate

D. high definition

Question 2:

Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing what you intended it to do?

A. Cisco DNA Assurance

B. Cisco ACI Anywhere

C. Cisco DNA Spaces

D. Cisco HyperFlex

Question 3:

What is one capability of the Catalyst 9200 web user interface?

A. integrating with compatible Cisco routers

B. providing AMP support

C. opening a case with Cisco Technical Assistance Center

D. monitoring selected sections on the dashboard

Question 4:

Where on the Web User interface can customers find details of application visibility and control?

A. the monitoring panel

B. the dashboard

C. configuration

D. troubleshooting

Question 5:

Which combination of MS switch models has supported foe physical stacking with each other?

A. MS120-8 and MS120-24

B. MS350-48 and MS350-24X

C. MS225-48 and MS350-48

D. MS225-24 and MS425-16

Question 6:

What is one benefit of the Cisco 1100 ISR router over the 900 ISR router for mid-size organizations?

A. The 1100 ISR provides support for xDSL types of WAN interfaces

B. The 1100 ISR is compatible with all Cisco switches.

C. The 1100 ISR provides APIC support.

D. The 1100 ISR includes a built-in firewall and advanced QOS features.

Question 7:

Which statement is true about Cisco Mobility Express?

A. It must be connected to a separate physical wireless controller to provide full enterprise features.

B. It can be deployed in under 10 minutes with an easy 3-stepover-the-air configuration wizard.

C. It comes with a simple, easy-to-use vManage dashboard.

D. Customers must purchase a license to support more than 50 APs.

Question 8:

Which is an SKU for Mobility Express?

A. AIR-AP1815W-X-K9

B. AlR-AP28021-K9

C. AIR-AP18151-K9C

D. AlR-AP18521-K9

Question 9:

What is one benefit of the Aironet 4800 AP?

A. cost-effectiveness for small-to-medium-sized deployments

B. modularity for investment protection

C. Cisco CleanAir

D. industry-leading hyper location

Question 10:

Which Cisco product is the network management system, foundational controller, and analytics platform all the center of ……. network?

A. Cisco DNA Spaces

B. Cisco Meraki

C. Cisco DNA Center

D. Cisco Wireless Solutions

Question 11:

What feature of the Catalyst does 2960-L allow customers to get a small branch or office network running within minutes?

A. support for Cisco DNA center

B. on-box web interface for configuration

C. flexible deployments with StackWise-160

D. complete CLI support

Question 12:

Which is a function performed by the dedicated third radio in MR access points?

A. RF optimization (Auto RF)

B. WLAN controller

C. Site survey planning

D. DHCP addressing

Question 13:

Which three product capabilities allow Cisco DNA Spaces to deliver business value?

A. Sense, Act, and Partner

B. View, Interpret, and Act

C. See, Anticipate and Respond

D. See, Act, and Extend

Question 14:

What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX Security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)

B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)

C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

Question 15:

Which statement correctly describes how Cisco Meraki devices behave should they be unable to contact the Meraki Cloud server?

A. The network devices will attempt to establish a connection to a locally hosted database server that has been configured for high availability.

B. The devices may be re-initiated into a backup mode if an administrator manually intervenes using a direct, local connection.

C. The network stops passing traffic across all devices and the interfaces including any connected non-Cisco Meraki devices.

D. The network devices continue to function normally (traffic lows at full rate) but management and configuration functions are interrupted.

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

500-560 OCSE certification exam tests covers Switching, Routing, Wireless, Cloud and Security solutions for engagements with smaller business customers.
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July 18, 2022 by admin 500-560 Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions 500-560 OCSE Cisco Cisco Express Specialization – Networking Track Cisco OCSE certification exam

The latest update CompTIA N10-008 free dumps from Lead4Pass

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The complete CompTIA N10-008 exam dumps are in Lead4Pass https://www.lead4pass.com/n10-008.html (Total Questions: 227 Q&A) [Updated 2022 Total Questions: 384 Q&A] The complete dumps contain two modes: PDF and VCE, which you can choose arbitrarily.

[Updated 2022] N10-008 Exam Question and Answers

QUESTION 1:

A network administrator is installing a new IDS device that will collect logs and alert the administrator of breaches.
The network infrastructure includes a modern, firewall, and core and access switches.
The modem is ISP provided and only forwards packets from the data circuit.
The firewall handles stateful packet inspection, the ACL, and application layer filtering.
Which of the following describes where the administrator should install the IDS device on the network to collect the MOST relevant information?

A. In front of the modem and firewall
B. Between the modem and firewall
C. Behind the firewall on the core switch
D. After the access switch

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A network administrator is implementing OSPF on all of a company\’s network devices. Which of the following will MOST likely replace all the company\’s hubs?

A. A Layer 3 switch
B. A proxy server
C. A NGFW
D. A WLAN controller

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

Which of the following OSI model layers is where conversations between applications are established, coordinated, and terminated?

A. Session
B. Physical
C. Presentation
D. Data link

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4:

An administrator needs to connect to a server to install security patches. The administrator requests that port 3389 be allowed through the firewall. Which of the following access methods is the administrator looking to use?

A. SSH
B. Telnet
C. SFTP
D. RDP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

After rebooting a PC, a user is no longer able to connect to the corporate network. As a test, the technician plugs a different laptop into the same network jack and receives an IP address of 169.254.112.137. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?

A. DHCP scope exhaustion
B. Improper DNS setting
C. Incorrect ACL setting
D. Port-security violation

Correct Answer: A

[Updated 2022] Get more Comptia N10-008 exam questions and answers

CompTIA N10-008 free dumps of the latest updates

Take the test, the answer will be announced at the end of the article

Question 1:

SIMULATION

You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 Access Points and a single switch. The network must meet the following parameters:

The SSIDs need to be configured as CorpNet with a key of S3cr3t!

The wireless signals should not interfere with each other The subnet the Access Points and switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum The Access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed

INSTRUCTONS

Click on the wireless devices and review their information and adjust the settings of the access points to meet the given requirements.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

comptia n10-008 exam questions q1

Correct Answer: See below.

On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows

Access Point Name AP1 IP Address 192.168.1.3 Gateway 192.168.1.2

SSID corpnet

SSID Broadcast yes

Mode G

Channel 1

Speed Auto

Duplex Auto

WPA

Passphrase S3cr3t!

Exhibit 2 as follows

Access Point Name AP2

IP Address 192.168.1.4

Gateway 192.168.1.2

SSID corpnet

SSID Broadcast yes

Mode G

Channel 6

Speed Auto

Duplex Auto

WPA

Passphrase S3cr3t!

Exhibit 3 as follows

Access Point Name AP3

IP Address 192.168.1.5

Gateway 192.168.1.2

SSID corpnet

SSID Broadcast yes

Mode G

Channel 11

Speed Auto

Duplex Auto

WPA

Passphrase S3cr3t!

Question 2:

SIMULATION

You are tasked with verifying the following requirements are met in order to ensure network security.

Requirements:

Datacenter

-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage

-Provide a dedicated server to resolve IP addresses and hostnames correctly and handle port 53 traffic Building A

-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage

-Provide devices to support 5 additional different office users

-Add an additional mobile user

-Replace the Telnet server with a more secure solution Screened subnet

-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage

–

Provide a server to handle external 80/443 traffic

–

Provide a server to handle port 20/21 traffic

INSTRUCTIONS

Drag and drop objects onto the appropriate locations. Objects can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled.

Available objects are located in both the Servers and Devices tabs of the Drag and Drop menu.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

comptia n10-008 exam questions q2

Correct Answer: See below.

Top left subnet – 206.208.134.0/28

Top right subnet – 10.72.63.0/28

Bottom subnet – 192.168.11.0/28

Screened Subnet devices – Web server, FTP server

Building A devices – SSH server top left, workstations on all 5 on the right, laptop on bottom left

DataCenter devices – DNS server.

Question 3:

A network administrator has discovered a low-end managed switch connoted to the company LAN. While reading about the device\’s specifications on the manufacturer\’s website, the administrator discovers the switch does not support a command line interface for administration. Which of the following remote access methods should the administrator use to log in the switch?

A. install a VNC plugin on the web Browser

B. Connect to the HTTPS management interface

C. Replace the managed switch with an unmanaged switch.

D. Establish an SSH session.

Question 4:

A company needs to be able to restore 100% of its data from any single day\’s backup. Which of the following backup types should the company use?

A. Full

B. Incremental

C. snapshot

D. Differential

Question 5:

A company\’s users have been reporting excessive latency when connecting to the Internet. The network administration team submitted a change request to upgrade all the obsolete network equipment from 100Mbps to 1Gbps and It was approved. Which of the following documentation types will be needed to measure the success or failure of the upgrade project?

A. Network performance baseline

B. Network configuration documents

C. Equipment Implementation Instructions

D. Inventory management documentation

Question 6:

A network team has reopened multiple outages caused by unauthorized access to the IDF. Which of the following would BEST prevent this issue from reoccurring?

A. Video surveillance

B. Badge readers

C. Motion sensors

D. Tamper switches

Question 7:

A new network Technician is responsible for bringing a building onto the corporate network. The technician is not aware of the proper settings for the new switches. Which of the following should the technician reference to find these settings?

A. iDF/MDF documentation

B. Change management plan

C. Configuration baseline

D. Standard operating procedures

Question 8:

A technician needs to back up network devices to a central location to prepare for a natural disaster. Which of the following should the technician use?

A. VPN

B. TFTP

C. RDP

D. VNC

Question 9:

A user has called the help desk with a problem reaching certain servers within the organization. The organization is using RFC 1819 for internal networks. The servers having trouble are configured with the following IP addresses: 192. 130.

135. 5 and 192. 130. 135. 6.

The user cannot connect to the correct servers. Which of the following explain why this is happening to the user?

A. The network has been configured with an inappropriate scheme

B. The serves are periodical/ going offline and rejecting the connection.

C. The default route in the user\’s computer points to the wrong upstream device.

D. The IPS system is flagging the traffic as suspicious and terminating the connection.

Question 10:

A network administrator plans to install network connectivity at a new remote office location. The administrator is concerned about how to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and reconfigure the remote router. The technician should use:

A. an SD card with a backup configuration

B. a TFTP server on the main network for backup configurations

C. a modem using POTS.

D. a second Ethernet interface for remote access.

Question 11:

A new employee is unable to access any network resources. All other users are able to access the network at 100Mbps No IP address, subnet mask or default gateway is displayed on the new employee\’s workstation The network administrator determinates all connectors using the correct standard Upon further investigation the network administrator also notices the following.

Wire map results from the user patch cable lo the patch cable connecting to the switch:

Pins 5 and 7 are short

The distance is 200ft (61m) Additional observations on the switch

The VLAN is set correctly

The port is not disabled

The duplex”;speed settings are correct

Port LEOs are off for that port.

The port is set to untagged.

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the new employee is having network issues?

A. Bad switchport

B. Incorrect pinout

C. Open/short

D. VLAN mismatch

E. Distance limitation

Question 12:

A technician recently installed a new wireless access point for a SOHO with the latest wireless technologies After the installation users with older laptops report their laptops no longer show the wireless network SSID, whereas users with newer equipment do not have this issue. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

A. The passphrase was changed

B. The wireless cards do not support 802 11ac.

C. The security type has been upgraded to WPA2

D. The administrator is not broadcasting the SSID

Question 13:

A network administrator is looking for an out-of-band method for accessing the console ports of a company\’s network devices when working remotely. Which of the following can be deployed as a solution?

A. A hub

B. Abridge

C. A modem

D. A WAP

Question 14:

A network administrator is configuring a link-state routing protocol for traffic. Which of the following routing protocols should be implemented?

A. BGP

B. EIGRP

C. OSPF

D. RIPv2

Question 15:

Which of the following would an organization MOST likely have employees sign before granting access to confidential data?

A. An AUP

B. A BYOD policy

C. An NDA

D. A PUA

Publish the answer

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

See below

The complete CompTIA N10-008 dumps are available here: https://www.lead4pass.com/n10-008.html (Total Questions: 227 Q&A)[Updated 2022 Total Questions: 384 Q&A]

CompTIA N10-008 exam PDF free download

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[Updated 2022] https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_r16oeoUiKqpMs5rgrZvgKX-A_tlgrnY/

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July 5, 2022 by admin CompTIA CompTIA Network+ N10-008 CompTIA Network+ N10-008 exam dumps N10-008 exam questions N10-008 free dumps N10-008 practice test Uncategorized

FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 | CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Exam Solution

FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 is the latest version of Lead4Pass FC0-U61 Dumps, a truly effective solution for the CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ exam.

The FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 version has updated all previous exam questions and answers. The latest FC0-U61 exam questions and answers have been verified and verified by Amazon subject matter experts, and are true and valid.

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FC0-U61 Exam Information:

You should know that FC0-U61 is the exam code for the CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam, see the following for more basic information:

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: FC0-U61
Exam Name: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam
Certification: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+
Price: $130 USD
Length: 60 Minutes
Passing Score: 650 (on a scale of 900)
Number of Questions: Maximum of 75 questions per exam
Format: Multiple choice
languages: English

Share a part of FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 for free

QUESTION 1:

A user wants to ensure port 3389 is open for remote desktop on a PC. Which of the following describes where the user should verify the port is open?

A. Antivirus
B. Anti-malware
C. Device Manager
D. Host firewall

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2:

Which of the following BEST describes a technology that allows multiple users to create and edit reports at the same time?

A. Text file on a shared drive
B. Managed relational database
C. Informational intranet page
D. Locally installed productivity software

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

Malware infections are being caused by websites. Which of the following settings will help prevent infections caused by Internet browsing?

A. Turn on private browsing
B. Delete browsing history on program close.
C. Notify when downloads are complete.
D. Configure prompting before downloading content.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

Which of the following would allow an application to run automatically when a computer is started?

A. Processes
B. Journaling
C. Services
D. Drivers

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

A user connects a company computer to free WiFi at a local coffee shop. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

A. Information on this network is encrypted.
B. The information on the network can be seen by others.
C. It is safe to access company information using the network.
D. Private browsing mode protects the information on the network.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6:

Which of the following examples are MOST typical of fault tolerance practices used in business continuity planning? (Choose two.)

A. RAID storage
B. Uninterruptible power supplies
C. Off-site backups
D. Private cloud servers
E. Virtual-hosted desktops
F. Warm sites

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7:

Which of the following is a reason why complex passwords are required?

A. To encourage password variety
B. To prevent someone from guessing them
C. To make them harder to remember
D. To reduce social engineering attacks

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8:

A security administrator is adding accounting features to a web application. Which of the following would be the BEST action?

A. Enhance the granularity of user permissions.
B. Enable an audit log.
C. Implement smart card login.
D. Adopt a procedure for adding accounts.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

A technician is installing a new wireless network and wants to secure the wireless network to prevent unauthorized access. Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure?

A. WPA
B. SSID
C. WEP
D. WPA2

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

A developer is in the process of creating a program and has started to draft the logic of the code. This process is an example of:

A. drawing a value stream map.
B. developing pseudocode.
C. identifying functions.
D. compiling the language.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11:

A schema is a critical part of which the following?

A. Relational database
B. Key/value database
C. Document database
D. NoSQL database

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

Which of the following is a logical structure for storing files?

A. Folder
B. Extension
C. Permissions
D. Shortcut

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

A systems administrator wants to run a script but does not have access to the graphical user interface. Which of the following can be used to run scripts?

A. Text editor
B. Word processor
C. Command line
D. Spreadsheet

Correct Answer: C

……

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May 26, 2022 by admin CompTIA CompTIA FC0-U61 Exam Dumps CompTIA FC0-U61 Exam Questions CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam

CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CS0-002 Exam Dumps

You can take your CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst exam by studying the latest CS0-002 exam dumps.
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Check CompTIA CS0-002 free dumps before taking the CS0-002 exam

QUESTION 1:

An organization is attempting to harden its web servers and reduce the information that might be disclosed by potential attackers. A security analyst is reviewing vulnerability scan results from a recent web server scan.
Portions of the scan results are shown below:

Which of the following lines indicates information disclosure about the host that needs to be remediated?

A. Response: :\Documents\MarySmith\mailingList.pdf
B. Finding#5144322
C. First Time Detected 10 Nov 2015 09:00 GMT-0600
D. Access Path: http://myOrg.com/mailingList.htm
E. Request: GET http://myOrg.com/mailingList.aspx?content=volunteer

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A company has a popular shopping cart website hosted in geographically diverse locations. The company has started hosting static content on a content delivery network (CDN) to improve performance. The CDN provider has reported the company is occasionally sending attack traffic to other CDN-hosted targets.
Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?

A. The CDN provider has mistakenly performed a GeoIP mapping to the company.
B. The CDN provider has misclassified the network traffic as hostile.
C. A vulnerability scan has been tuned to exclude web assets hosted by the CDN.
D. The company has been breached, and customer PII is being exfiltrated to the CDN.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

A security analyst is assisting with a computer crime investigation and has been asked to secure a PC and deliver it to the forensic lab. Which of the following items would be MOST helpful to secure the PC? (Choose three.)

A. Tamper-proof seals
B. Faraday cage
C. Chain of custody form
D. Drive eraser
E. Write blockers
F. Network tap
G. Multimeter

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4:

Which of the following stakeholders would need to be aware of an e-discovery notice received by the security office about an ongoing case within the manufacturing department?

A. Board of trustees
B. Human resources
C. Legal D. Marketing

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5:

An analyst was investigating the attack that took place on the network. A user was able to access the system without proper authentication. Which of the following will the analyst recommend, related to management approaches, in order to control access? (Choose three.)

A. RBAC
B. LEAP
C. DAC
D. PEAP
E. MAC
F. SCAP
G. BCP

Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6:

A company\’s IDP/DLP solution triggered the following alerts:

Which of the following alerts should a security analyst investigate FIRST?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7:

A software assurance lab is performing a dynamic assessment on an application by automatically generating and inputting different, random data sets to attempt to cause an error/failure condition. Which of the following software assessment capabilities is the lab performing AND during which phase of the SDLC should this occur? (Select two.)

A. Fuzzing
B. Behavior modeling
C. Static code analysis
D. Prototyping phase
E. Requirements phase
F. Planning phase

Correct Answer: AD
Reference: http://www.brighthub.com/computing/smb-security/articles/9956.aspx

QUESTION 8:

A company has implemented WPA2, a 20-character minimum for the WiFi passphrase, and a new WiFi passphrase every 30 days, and has disabled SSID broadcast on all wireless access points. Which of the following is the company trying to mitigate?

A. Downgrade attacks
B. Rainbow tables
C. SSL pinning
D. Forced deauthentication

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

A security operations team was alerted to abnormal DNS activity coming from a user\’s machine. The team performed a forensic investigation and discovered a host had been compromised. Malicious code was using DNS as a tunnel to extract data from the client machine, which had been leaked and transferred to an unsecured public Internet site. Which of the following BEST describes the attack?

A. Phishing
B. Pharming
C. Cache poisoning
D. Data exfiltration

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

During a routine log review, a security analyst has found the following commands that cannot be identified from the Bash history log on the root user:

Which of the following commands should the analyst investigate FIRST?

A. Line 1
B. Line 2
C. Line 3
D. Line 4
E. Line 5
F. Line 6

Correct Answer: B

……

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May 6, 2022 by admin CompTIA CompTIA CySA+ cs0-002 CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) cs0-002 dumps cs0-002 exam prep cs0-002 exam questions cs0-002 exam tips cs0-002 pdf cs0-002 practice test

368 XK0-004 dumps in preparation for CompTIA Linux+ exam success

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The questions for XK0-004 were last updated on April 18, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-13 out of 368 questions:

QUESTION 1:

A systems administrator suspects a process with a PID of 2864 is consuming resources at an alarming rate. The administrator uses the command renice -n -5 -p2864, but it does not solve the issue. Which of the following commands should the administrator execute to correct the issue?

A. nice -n 5 -p 2864
B. nice -n -5 -p 2864
C. renice -n 10 -p 2864
D. renice -n -10 -p 2864

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

A new HTTPS web service is being deployed on a server. Which of the following commands should the Linux administrator use to ensure traffic is able to flow through the system firewall to the new service?

A. iptables -I OUTPUT -p tcp –sport 443 -j ACCEPT
B. iptables -A INPUT -p tcp –dport 443 -j ACCEPT
C. iptables -I INPUT –dport 443 -j ACCEPT
D. iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp –dport 443 -j ACCEPT

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.linode.com/docs/security/firewalls/control-network-traffic-with-iptables/

QUESTION 3:

The following represents a partial listing of a user\’s .bashrc file: HISTSIZE=800 HISTFILESIZE=1000
umask 2002 HISTCONTROL=ignoreboth When the user opens a terminal, an error message appears: Octal number out of range Which of the following lines in the partial .bashrc should be modified to prevent the error from occurring?

A. HISTSIZE=800
B. HISTFILESIZE=1000
C. umask 2002
D. HISTCONTROL=ignoreboth

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

A user needs to modify the IP address of a laptop. Which of the following files can be used to configure the network interface named eth0?

A. /etc/sysconfig/network/interfaces.cnf
B. /system/config/interfaces
C. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0
D. /system/networking/ifconfig
E. /etc/interfaces/eth0.conf

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://opensource.com/life/16/6/how-configure-networking-linux

QUESTION 5:

Users in the payroll department are not configured to use DNS due to security concerns. The users ask the junior Linux administrator to configure their workstations to access the payroll server at 192.168.204.11 by the name “Payroll”.
Which of the following commands should the administrator issue meet this request?

A. echo “nameserver 192.168.204.11 #Payroll” >> /etc/resolv.conf
B. echo “net.ipv4.ip_dynaddr=192.168.204.11 Payroll” >> /etc/sysctl.conf
C. echo “192.168.204.11 Payroll” >> /etc/hosts
D. echo `IPADDR=”192.168.204.11″ #Payroll\’ >> /etc/network/interface

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

An administrator receives a USB drive and wants to make an exact copy of the disk before starting to work on it. One of the partitions on the USB drive was mounted as /dev/sdc1. Which of the following commands should the administrator use?

A. dd if=/dev/sdc of=~/usb_copy.img bs=512
B. dd if=/dev/sdc1 of=~/usb_copy.img count=1024
C. dd if=/dev/sdc1 of=~/usb_copy.img bs=1024
D. dd of=/dev/sdc if=~/usb_copy.img bs=1M

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

A Linux administrator is helping the security team troubleshoot an SELinux policy violation incident. Which of the following would be the BEST utility command to display SELinux violation and AVC denial messages?

A. journalctl | grep sealert
B. sealert -a /var/log/audit/audit.log
C. aureport | grep AVC
D. cat /var/log/messages | grep selinux

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8:

A server is almost out of free memory and is becoming unresponsive. Which of the following sets of commands will BEST mitigate the issue?

A. free, fack, partprobe
B. lsof, lvcreate, mdadm
C. df, du, rmmod
D. fdisk, mkswap, swapon -a

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

A Linux engineer is troubleshooting a newly added SCSI device for a Linux server that needed more disk space without rebooting. The engineer discovers that the new device is not visible by the Linux kernel in fdisk -l output. Which of the following commands should be used to rescan the entire SCSI bus?

A. echo “- – -” > /sys/class/scsi_host/host0/scan
B. echo \’ \’ > /sys/class/scsi_host/host0/scan
C. echo “- – -” > /sys/scsi/scsi_host/host0/scan
D. echo “scan” > /sys/class/scsi_host/host0/scan

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://geekpeek.net/rescan-scsi-bus-on-linux-system/

QUESTION 10:

A systems administrator has set up third-party log aggregation agents across several cloud instances. The systems administrator wants to create a dashboard of failed SSH attempts and the usernames used. Which of the following files should be watched by the agents?

A. /var/log/audit/audit.log
B. /var/log/kern.log
C. /var/log/monitor
D. /etc/rsyslog.conf

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

An administrator needs to mount the shared NFS file system testhost:/testvolume to mount point/mnt/testvol and make the mount persistent after reboot. Which of the following BEST demonstrates the commands necessary to accomplish this task?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

A junior systems administrator needs to make a packet capture file that will only capture HTTP protocol data to a file called test.pcap.
Which of the following commands would allow the administrator to accomplish this task?

A. netcat -p 80 -w test.pcap
B. tshark -r test.pcap -o http
C. tcpdump -i eth0 port 80 -r test.pcap
D. tcpdump -i eth0 port 80 -w test.pcap

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13:

A server, which is used to collect data about the network and data center environment via SNMP, is running out of space. Which of the following should the server administrator implement to reduce disk utilization?

A. journald
B. Snapshots
C. logrotate
D. tar -cvf

Correct Answer: B

……

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April 28, 2022 by admin CompTIA CompTIA Linux+ xk0-004 CompTIA Linux+ Certification Exam xk0-004 dumps xk0-004 exam prep xk0-004 exam tips

SY0-601 Dumps [2022.4] for CompTIA Security+ 2022 Exam Purposes

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The questions for SY0-601 were last updated on April 25, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-13 out of 572 questions:

QUESTION 1:

A company was recently breached Part of the company\’s new cybersecurity strategy is to centralize the logs from all security devices Which of the following components forwards the logs to a central source?

A. Log enrichment
B. Log aggregation
C. Log parser
D. Log collector

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2:

An end-user reports a computer has been acting slower than normal for a few weeks, During an investigation, an analyst determines the system 3 sending the users email address and a ten-digit number ta an IP address once a day.
The only recent log entry regarding the user\’s computer is the following:

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The end-user purchased and installed 2 PUP from a web browser.
B. 4 bot on the computer is ruled forcing passwords against a website.
C. A hacker Is attempting to exfiltrate sensitive data.
D. Ransomware is communicating with a command-and-control server.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

An enterprise needs to keep cryptographic keys in a safe manner. Which of the following network appliances can achieve this goal?

A. HSM
B. CASB
C. TPM
D. DLP

Correct Answer: A

A hardware security module (HSM) is a security device you can add to a system to manage, generate, and securely store cryptographic keys. High-performance HSMs are external devices connected to a network using TCP/IP. Smaller HSMs come as expansion cards you install within a server, or as devices, you plug into computer ports.

QUESTION 4:

An attack relies on an end-user visiting a website the end-user would typically visit, however, the site is compromised and uses vulnerabilities in the end user’s browser to deploy malicious software. Which of the blowing types of attack does this describe?

A. Smishing
B. Whaling
C. Watering hole
D. Phishing

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5:

A financial analyst is expecting an email containing sensitive information from a client. When the email arrives, the analyst receives an error and is unable to open the encrypted message. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The S/MME plug-in is not enabled.
B. The SSL certificate has expired.
C. Secure IMAP was not implemented
D. POP3S is not supported.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

To reduce costs and overhead, an organization wants to move from an on-premises email solution to a cloud-based email solution. At this time, no other services will be moving. Which of the following cloud models would BEST meet the needs of the organization?

A. Maas
B. laaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7:

SIMULATION
A company recently added a DR site and is redesigning the network. Users at the DR site are having issues browsing websites.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each firewall to do the following:
1.
Deny cleartext web traffic.
2.
Ensure secure management protocols are used.
3.
Resolve issues at the DR site.
The ruleset order cannot be modified due to outside constraints.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Firewall 1
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

In Firewall 1, HTTP inbound Action should be DENY. As shown below

QUESTION 8:

A company Is concerned about its security after a red-team exercise. The report shows the team was able to reach the critical servers due to the SMB being exposed to the Internet and running NTLMV1. Which of the following BEST explains the findings?

A. Default settings on the servers
B. Unsecured administrator accounts
C. Open ports and services
D. Weak Data encryption

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9:

Several employees have noticed other bystanders can clearly observe a terminal where passcodes are being entered.
Which of the following can be eliminated with the use of a privacy screen?

A. Shoulder surfing
B. Spear phishing
C. Impersonation attack
D. Card cloning

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10:

Customers reported their antivirus software flagged one of the company\’s primary software products as suspicious. The company\’s Chief Information Security Officer has tasked the developer with determining a method to create a trust model between the software and the customer\’s antivirus software. Which of the following would be the BEST solution?

A. Code signing
B. Domain validation
C. Extended validation
D. Self-signing

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

Which of the following corporate policies is used to help prevent employee fraud and to detect system log modifications or other malicious activity based on tenure?

A. Background checks
B. Mandatory vacation
C. Social media analysis
D. Separation of duties

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12:

A company\’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently warned the security manager that the company\’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is planning to publish a controversial option article in a national newspaper, which may result in new cyberattacks Which of the following would be BEST for the security manager to use in a threat model?

A. Hacktivists
B. White-hat hackers
C. Script kiddies
D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: A

Hacktivists – “a person who gains unauthorized access to computer files or networks in order to further social or political ends.”

QUESTION 13:

A company has three technicians who share the same credentials for troubleshooting the system. Every time credentials are changed, the new ones are sent by email to all three technicians. The security administrator has become aware of this situation and wants to implement a solution to mitigate the risk. Which of the following is the BEST solution for a company to implement?

A. SSO authentication
B. SSH keys
C. OAuth authentication
D. Password vaults

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.onelogin.com/learn/how-single-sign-on-works

……

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April 25, 2022 by admin CompTIA CompTIA Security+ sy0-601 CompTIA Security+ 2021 sy0-601 dumps sy0-601 exam prep sy0-601 exam tips

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QUESTION 1

Which of the following project management tools provides an authoritative source of the project performance guidelines?

A. KPI
B. SWOT
C. RACI
D. MOU

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.applicationperformancemanagement.org/performance-testing/key-performanceindicators/

QUESTION 2

Which of the following is MOST effective for projects that require internal reorganization?

A. Vision
B. Right of passage
C. Command
D. Evidentiary
E. Segmentation

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

A client has requested a project be completed ahead of schedule. The client understands the triple constraints and agrees to expand the defect tolerance.
Which of the following should the PM do NEXT?

A. Crash the schedule.
B. Notify the project team.
C. Initiate a change request.
D. Accept the risk.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

A fire occurred in the production facility over the weekend, affecting the machinery being used to produce a deliverable.
No injuries were reported.
Which of the following is MOST appropriate for the project manager to do NEXT?

A. Refer to the contingency plan
B. Conduct an immediate emergency team meeting
C. Perform a SWOT analysis
D. Implement the risk response plan

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which of the following techniques modifies the schedule based upon resource constraints?

A. Critical Chain Method
B. Critical Path Method
C. Arrow Diagramming Method
D. Precedence Diagramming Method

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

Objectives and tasks are equally assigned by two different managers. Which of the following BEST describes this organization type?

A. RACI
B. Functional
C. Matrix
D. Projectized

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

During a project status meeting, the project manager states the project is running ahead of schedule. However, the executive committee, which is unfamiliar with the project manager\’s work, does not think it will finish on time.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. personal preferences
B. Interorganizational differences
C. Relationship building
D. Specific communication

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

A project team is showing off a new product prototype at a trade show, and potential customers are requesting more information.
Which of the following is the MOST efficient way to provide more information?

A. Printed media
B. Email
C. Meeting
D. Video conference

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

A project manager recently joined a projectized organization and is having many issues on five different projects. Which of the following risk activities should be performed FIRST? (Choose two.)

A. Identify
B. Coordinate
C. Qualify

D. Brainstorm
E. Mitigate
F. Assign

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10

Which of the following roles has approval authority for project funding?

A. Champion
B. Chief Financial Officer (CFO)
C. Project Management Office (PMO)
D. Sponsor

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=scjmDQAAQBAJandpg=PA29andlpg=PA29anddq=comptia
+roles+has+approval+authority+for+project
+fundingandsource=blandots=QjPXRQ0G3Yandsig=gToYb55ruudpdmlyclTUJwsS7vYandhl=enandsa=Xandved=0ahUKEwiA08WQ3IXbAhWJpo8KHe97ACMQ6AEIRjAD#v=onepageandq=comptia%20roles%20has%20approval%20authority%20for%20project%20fundingandf=false

QUESTION 11

A project manager receives an initial project assignment.
Which of the following documents is MOST likely to indicate the organizational structure for the project?

A. Communication management plan
B. Baseline
C. Business case
D. Organizational breakdown structure

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

A team member learns that an assigned task is not due until the very end of the project. Moreover, the team member is not aware of any predecessor tasks dependent on completing the assigned task. Which of the following does the project manager use to decide if the team member can start the task later or earlier?

A. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is a critical dependency.
B. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is a discretionary dependency.
C. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is a real dependency.
D. Review the PERT chart and evaluate if the task is an external dependency.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www.pmgloss.com/comptia/

……

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