Newly updated 350-401 dumps can help candidates get better

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Why choose CCNP Enterprise 350-401 dumps?

350-401 dumps help you successfully pass the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) certification exam to configure, troubleshoot, and manage the networks of the world’s largest companies.

Of course, candidates still need to go through the second step, choose any one of the CCNP Enterprise centralized examination, this is the 1+1 rule of Cisco CCNP Enterprise certification, candidates must know.

Do you want to be a leader in enterprise wireless technology and enterprise infrastructure technology?

Your first step is to pass the qualifying exam: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR 350-401),Then take the lab exam: CCIE Enterprise Wireless v1.0.

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Read the free 350-401 exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
13Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)Lead4PassNov 10, 2022Oct 08, 2022
NEW QUESTION 1:

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients\’?

new 350-401 exam questions 1
new 350-401 exam questions 1-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2:

Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two.)

A. Increase minimum mandatory data rate

B. Reduce AP transmit power

C. Disable 2.4 GHz and use only 5 GHz.

D. Enable Fastlane.

E. Reduce channel width from 40 MHz to 20 MHz

Correct Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 exam questions 3

What are two results of the NAT configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Packets with a destination of 200.1.1.1 are translated to 10.1.1.1 or .2. respectively.
B. A packet that is sent to 200.1.1.1 from 10.1.1.1 is translated to 209.165.201.1 on R1.
C. R1 looks at the destination IP address of packets entering S0/0 and destined for inside hosts.
D. R1 processes packets entering E0/0 and S0/0 by examining the source IP address.
E. R1 is performing NAT for inside addresses and outside address.

Correct Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 4:

Which A record type should be configured for access points to resolve the IP address of a wireless LAN controller using DNS?

A. CISCO.CONTROLLER.localdomain
B. CISCO.CAPWAP.CONTROLLER.localdomain
C. CISCO-CONTROLLER.localdomain
D. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code construct a script that configure a loopback interface with an IP address (not all options are used)?

Select and Place:

new 350-401 exam questions 5

Correct Answer:

new 350-401 exam questions 5-1

NEW QUESTION 6:

Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments In a VXLAN environment?

A. switch fabric
B. VTEP
C. VNID
D. host switch

Correct Answer: C

VXLAN uses an 8-byte VXLAN header that consists of a 24-bit VNID and a few reserved bits. The VXLAN
header together with the original Ethernet frame goes in the UDP payload. The 24-bit VNID is used to
identify Layer 2 segments and to maintain Layer 2 isolation between the segments.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7-x/vxlan/
configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x/
b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x_chapter_010.html

NEW QUESTION 7:

How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

A. An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.

B. The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C. The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client

D. The client database on the original controller is updated the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8:

What is one primary REST security design principle?

A. fail-safe defaults
B. password hash
C. adding a timestamp in requests
D. OAuth

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 exam questions 9
new 350-401 exam questions 9-1

Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209 165 201 0/27 via BR1?

A. Set the weight attribute to 65.535 on BR1 toward PE1.
B. Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound
C. Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound.
D. Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10:

An engineer must protect the password for the VTY lines against over-the-shoulder attacks. Which configuration should be applied?

A. service password-ncryption
B. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMf8elb4RVV8$seZ/bDA
C. username netadmin secret 7$1$42J36k33008Pyh4QzwXyZ4
D. line vty 0 15 p3ssword XD822j

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11:

An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?

A. logging buffer
B. service timestamps log uptime
C. logging host
D. terminal monitor

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right.

Select and Place:

new 350-401 exam questions 12

Correct Answer:

new q12-1

There are four messages sent between the DHCP Client and DHCP Server: DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER,
DHCPREQUEST and DHCPACKNOWLEDGEMENT. This process is often abbreviated as DORA (for Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledgement).

NEW QUESTION 13:

A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent?

A. container
B. Type 1 hypervisor
C. hardware pass-thru
D. Type 2 hypervisor

Correct Answer: D

In contrast to type 1 hypervisor, a type 2 hypervisor (or hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an operating system and not the physical hardware directly. A big advantage of Type 2 hypervisors is that management console software is not required. Examples of type 2 hypervisor are VMware Workstation (which can run on Windows, Mac and Linux) or Microsoft Virtual PC (only runs on Windows).


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The 350-401 ENCOR exam is the core exam for CCNP Enterprise, CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure, and CCIE Enterprise Wireless.Try using 350-401 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html (dumps PDF + VCE) Help candidates successfully pass the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) certification exam for the first time.

[Update Oct 2022] CompTIA A+ 220-1001 dumps the last share

new comptia a+

Sharing CompTIA A+ 220-1001 dumps from 2019 until October 20, 2022, CompTIA A+ 220-1001 retired and replaced by the new CompTIA A+ certification exam “220-1101”.

Today I will be sharing CompTIA A+ 220-1001 dumps exam questions and answers for the last time, recommending all candidates to use Lead4Pass 220-1001 dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/220-1001.html, to help you pass CompTIA A+ easily Certification exam.

Differences between CompTIA A+ 220-1001 and CompTIA A+ 220-1101:

220-1001 and 220-1101

If you have taken the CompTIA A+ certification exam many years ago, you will find that whether it is 220-801, 220-802, 220-901, or 220-902 longer ago. They are not very different, a little change, a modification of the description…

Whether you are preparing to take the 220-1001 exam or are about to take the 220-1101 certification exam, the CompTIA A+ certification exam questions and answers I share below will help you learn useful knowledge:

The latest updated CompTIA A+ 220-1001 Dumps exam questions and answers:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timeOnline Download
13CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1Lead4PassOct 19, 2022CompTIA A+ 220-1001 PDF
NEW QUESTION 1:

A user has a red X In the taskbar on a VM where Internet connectivity is usually located. Which of the following should be checked FIRST II all other operations are working normally on the VM?

A. Patch level of the host
B. Proxy server
C. Virtual switch
D. BIOS

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2:

Which of the following connector types is used to terminate household telephone cabling?

A. RG-6
B. RJ-11
C. RJ-45
D. RG-59

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3:

During a remodel of an auditorium, a second projector was added. The first protector was rotated so the image is duplicated on another section of the front wall Both projectors are connected to the switch through a VGA splitter After the move users report the images on the second projector are normal but images on the first projector are skewed.

Which of the following would correct the issue?

A. Replace the lamp on the projector
B. Adjust the projector\’s keystone
C. Change the projector\’s resolution
D. Power cycle the projector

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4:

Which of the following has a P4 connector to provide a 12V output?

A. EIDE port
B. 24-pin adapter
C. SCSI cable
D. eSATA cable

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5:

After a new laser printer was installed, users began reporting issues. Duplicate copies of print jobs were not delivering fully separated copies; instead, similar pages were being stacked. Which of the following settings MOST likely needed to be checked to correct this issue?

A. Collation
B. Duplexing
C. Orientation
D. Quality

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6:

A technician Is selling up a VM to be used for testing applications in a sandbox environment. The technician selects a quick setup to deploy the client with minimal configuration. The OS is Installed successfully; however, the VM locks up upon the first boot. The host device is operating normally.

Which of the following requirements should the technician review prior to making any changes?

A. Security
B. Resources
C. Network
D. Emulator

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7:

A computer that had been running properly for about three years no longer boots. A technician observes the computer attempting to pass the POST but it beeps three times before crashing. The computer then attempts to boot again and repeats the process.

Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the problem?

A. Mismatched memory speed type

B. Improperly seated memory modules
C. Malfunctioning memory modules
D. Incorrect memory type installed

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8:

A charging pad for a mobile device is no longer working and needs to be replaced. Until then, which of the following alternatives can be used to charge the mobile device?

A. USB-C
B. Ethernet
C. RJ11
D. Coaxial

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9:

A technician receives a call from a user who dropped a laptop and cracked the screen. The user needs it replaced quickly. The technician has to ensure the correct stock parts are in the storeroom.

Which of the following components would the technician MOST likely need to repair the user\’s laptop? (Select TWO)

A. Webcam
B. Microphone
C. Video adapter
D. Bezel
E. Speaker
F. LCD

Correct Answer: DF

NEW QUESTION 10:

A technician is upgrading the RAM in a server-grade laptop for a company\’s Chief Execute Officer (CEO). The CEO cannot afford any downtime. Which of the following is the BEST type of memory module to purchase?

A. LRSIMM
B. DDR4

C. Parity
D. Dual channel

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11:

Which of the following display connector types can transmit either a digital-to-digital signal or an analog-to-analog signal?

A. DVHD
B. DVI-A
C. DVI-I
D. RCA

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12:

A user receives a replacement modem/router combination device from an ISP and plugs it in. A laptop connected to the router via WiFi receives an address in 192.168.0.x range but is unable to access the Internet.

Which of the following would MOST likely resolve the problem?

A. Upgrade the network drivers on the laptop.
B. Change the laptop from a wireless to a wired connection.
C. Register the new cable modem MAC address with the ISP.
D. Update the password on the wireless connection.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13:

A user receives the following error message when powering on a computer:
The hard drive cannot be found. A technician restarts the computer, and it boots the OS normally. Several days later, the user reports another problem, but rebooting the computer does not resolve the issue. The technician replaces the motherboard, keeping the same CPU, battery, RAM, and hard drive. The user cannot authenticate at the login screen Which of the following would BEST explain the causes of the problem? (Select TWO)

A. POST error code beeps indicate RAM failure.

B. The system time is not set correctly in the BIOS
C. The voltage on the coin cell is drained completely
D. UEFI firmware has the Secure Boot setting enabled
E. Capacitors on the motherboard are distended
F. Incorrect settings are booting the wrong device
G. A BSOD error indicates the system is crashing

Correct Answer: CE


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[Latest Updated] Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps with PDF and VCE covering the actual exam

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Take the Cisco 200-901 dumps exam questions online practice test:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease time
15Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)Lead4PassSep 30, 2022
New Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Check answer >>

New Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command line is driven interface

Check answer >>

New Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Check answer >>

New Question 4:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Check answer >>

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco 200-901 dumps exam q5

What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?

Cisco 200-901 dumps exam q5-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Check answer >>

New Question 6:

What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?

A. MAC address

B. IPv6 address

C. spanning tree

D. IPv4 address

Check answer >>

New Question 7:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “communication administratively prohibited”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.

B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.

C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus drops traffic.

D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.

Check answer >>

New Question 8:

What is an advantage of a version control system?

A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code

B. ensures that unit tests are written

C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files

D. forces the practice of trunk-based development

Check answer >>

New Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco 200-901 dumps exam q9

What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?

A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

Check answer >>

New Question 10:

A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?

A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.

B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.

C. The server accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.

D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.

Check answer >>

New Question 11:

What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements the desired function.

B. Write a failing test case for the desired function.

C. Reverse engineer the code for the desired function.

D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Check answer >>

New Question 12:

What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?

A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively

B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application

C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address

D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application

Check answer >>

New Question 13:

A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)

A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.

B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.

C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.

D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.

E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.

Check answer >>

New Question 14:

What operation is performed with YANG model-driven programmability in NX-OS?

A. configure a device with native and OpenConfig-based models

B. bootstrap a device that has a factory-default configuration

C. send CLI commands to a device and retrieve output in JSON format

D. run Linux commands natively on the device

Check answer >>

New Question 15:

What is the function of an IP address in networking?

A. represents a network connection on specific devices

B. specifies the type of traffic that is allowed to roam on a network

C. specifies the resource\’s location and the mechanism to retrieve it

D. represents the unique ID that is assigned to one host on a network

Check answer >>

Verify the answer:

Number:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answer:CACCBDAAADBBBABAD

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Lead4Pass 312-50v11 dumps with PDF and VCE latest update

The latest updated Lead4Pass 312-50v11 dumps with PDF files and VCE exam engine, containing 528 exam questions and answers, serve all 312-50v11 CEH v11 exam candidates to help them successfully pass the exam.

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Free sharing of 15 EC-COUNCIL 312-50v11 Dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

When configuring wireless on his home router, Javik disables SSID broadcast. He leaves authentication “open” but sets the SSID to a 32-character string of random letters and numbers.

What is an accurate assessment of this scenario from a security perspective?

A. Since the SSID is required in order to connect, the 32-character string is sufficient to prevent brute-force attacks.

B. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents 802.11 beacons from being transmitted from the access point, resulting in a valid setup leveraging “security through obscurity”.

C. It is still possible for a hacker to connect to the network after sniffing the SSID from a successful wireless association.

D. Javik\’s router is still vulnerable to wireless hacking attempts because the SSID broadcast setting can be enabled using a specially crafted packet sent to the hardware address of the access point.

Correct Answer: C


New Question 2:

what are common files on a web server that can be misconfigured and provide useful Information for a hacker such as verbose error messages?

A. httpd.conf

B. administration.config

C. idq.dll

D. php.ini

Correct Answer: D

The php.ini file may be a special file for PHP. it\’s where you declare changes to your PHP settings. The server is already configured with standard settings for PHP, which your site will use by default. Unless you would like to vary one or more settings, there\’s no got to create or modify a php.ini file. If you\’d wish to make any changes to settings, please do so through the MultiPHP INI Editor.


New Question 3:

An attacker identified that a user and an access point are both compatible with WPA2 and WPA3 encryption. The attacker installed a rogue access point with only WPA2 compatibility in the vicinity and forced the victim to go through the WPA2 four-way handshake to get connected. After the connection was established, the attacker used automated tools to crack WPA2-encrypted messages. What is the attack performed in the above scenario?

A. Timing-based attack

B. Side-channel attack

C. Downgrade security attack

D. Cache-based attack

Correct Answer: B


New Question 4:

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Packet Sniffers operate on the Layer 1 of the OSI model.

B. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 2 of the OSI model.

C. Packet Sniffers operate on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model.

D. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 3 of the OSI model.

Correct Answer: B


New Question 5:

Ralph, a professional hacker, targeted Jane, who had recently bought new systems for her company. After a few days, Ralph contacted Jane while masquerading as a legitimate customer support executive, informing that her systems need to be serviced for proper functioning and that customer support will send a computer technician. Jane promptly replied positively. Ralph entered Jane\’s company using this opportunity and gathered sensitive information by scanning terminals for passwords, searching for important documents in desks, and rummaging bins. What is the type of attack technique Ralph used on jane?

A. Dumpster diving

B. Eavesdropping

C. Shoulder surfing

D. impersonation

Correct Answer: D


New Question 6:

Leverox Solutions hired Arnold, a security professional, for the threat intelligence process. Arnold collected information about specific threats against the organization. From this information, he retrieved contextual information about security events and incidents that helped him disclose potential risks and gain insight into attacker methodologies. He collected the information from sources such as humans, social media, and chat rooms as well as from events that resulted in cyberattacks. In this process, he also prepared a report that includes identified malicious activities, recommended courses of action, and warnings for emerging attacks. What is the type of threat intelligence collected by Arnold in the above scenario?

A. Strategic threat intelligence

B. Tactical threat intelligence

C. Operational threat intelligence

D. Technical threat intelligence

Correct Answer: C


New Question 7:

Which tool can be used to silently copy files from USB devices?

A. USB Grabber

B. USB Snoopy

C. USB Sniffer

D. Use Dumper

Correct Answer: D


New Question 8:

Which of the following algorithms can be used to guarantee the integrity of messages being sent, in transit, or stored?

A. symmetric algorithms

B. asymmetric algorithms

C. hashing algorithms

D. integrity algorithms

Correct Answer: C


New Question 9:

Don, a student, came across a gaming app in a third-party app store and Installed it. Subsequently, all the legitimate apps in his smartphone were replaced by deceptive applications that appeared legitimate. He also received many advertisements on his smartphone after Installing the app. What is the attack performed on Don in the above scenario?

A. SMS phishing attack

B. SIM card attack

C. Agent Smith attack

D. Clickjacking

Correct Answer: D


New Question 10:

Bob, your senior colleague, has sent you a mail regarding a deal with one of the clients. You are requested to accept the offer and you oblige. After 2 days, Bab denies that he had ever sent a mail. What do you want to “”know”” to prove yourself that it was Bob who had send a mail?

A. Non-Repudiation

B. Integrity

C. Authentication

D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: A


New Question 11:

John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization. In the attack process, the professional hacker Installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the vktims and scanned several machines on the same network to Identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation. What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?

A. Proxy scanner

B. Agent-based scanner

C. Network-based scanner

D. Cluster scanner

Correct Answer: B


New Question 12:

Gerard, a disgruntled ex-employee of Sunglass IT Solutions, targets this organization to perform sophisticated attacks and bring down its reputation in the market. To launch the attacks process, he performed DNS footprinting to gather information about ONS servers and to identify the hosts connected in the target network. He used an automated tool that can retrieve information about DNS zone data including DNS domain names, computer names. IP addresses. DNS records, and network Who is records. He further exploited this information to launch other sophisticated attacks. What is the tool employed by Gerard in the above scenario?

A. Knative

B. zANTI

C. Towelroot

D. Bluto

Correct Answer: D


New Question 13:

Morris, an attacker, wanted to check whether the target AP is in a locked state. He attempted using

different utilities to identify WPS-enabled APs in the target wireless network. Ultimately, he succeeded with

one special command-line utility.

Which of the following command-line utilities allowed Morris to discover the WPS-enabled APs?

A. wash

B. ntptrace

C. macof

D. net View

Correct Answer: A


New Question 14:

E-mail scams and mail fraud are regulated by which of the following?

A. 18 U.S.C. par. 1030 Fraud and Related activity in connection with Computers

B. 18 U.S.C. par. 1029 Fraud and Related activity in connection with Access Devices

C. 18 U.S.C. par. 1362 Communication Lines, Stations, or Systems

D. 18 U.S.C. par. 2510 Wire and Electronic Communications Interception and Interception of Oral Communication

Correct Answer: A


New Question 15:

jane, an ethical hacker. Is testing a target organization\’s web server and website to identity security loopholes. In this process, she copied the entire website and its content on a local drive to view the complete profile of the site\’s directory structure, file structure, external links, images, web pages, and so on. This information helps jane map the website\’s directories and gain valuable information. What is the attack technique employed by Jane in the above scenario?

A. website mirroring

B. Session hijacking

C. Web cache poisoning

D. Website defacement

Correct Answer: A

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New Question 1:

What is the correct IPv6 address notation?

A. 2001:0DB8::/128

B. 2001:0DB8:0::

C. 2001:0DB8::1:1:1:1:1

D. 2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B

Correct Answer: D


New Question 2:

Which two statements about Telnet and SSH are true? (Choose two.)

A. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.

B. SSH uses the well-known TCP port 23 for its communication.

C. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.

D. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.

E. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 3:

Which address facilitates the routing of packets over an IP network?

A. physical

B. transport

C. network

D. MAC

Correct Answer: C


New Question 4:

Which two IPv4 addresses can be assigned to a host computer? (Choose two.)

A. 255.255.255.255

B. 10.1.1.20

C. 0.0.0.0

D. 192.168.10.15

E. 292.10.3.4

Correct Answer: BD


New Question 5:

Which device is a DTE device?

A. CSU/DSU

B. router

C. cable modem

D. DSL modem

Correct Answer: B


New Question 6:

Which layer of the OSI model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?

A. presentation

B. data link

C. network

D. transport

Correct Answer: B


New Question 7:

Which command shows the status of power supplies and sensor temperatures?

A. show hardware

B. show module

C. show environment

D. show diag

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/m/en_us/techdoc/dc/reference/cli/n5k/commands/show-environment.html


New Question 8:

What are two standard fiber-optic connectors? (Choose two.)

A. Lucent

B. rollover

C. subscriber

D. multidimension

E. crossover

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 9:

Which two pairs of LAN Ethernet devices use an RJ-45 straight-through cable? (Choose two.)

A. switch-to-switch

B. switch-to-router

C. switch-to-hub

D. router-to-router

E. switch-to-server

Correct Answer: BE


New Question 10:

Which two features are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

A. consists of a single strand of glass fiber

B. has higher attenuation that multimode fiber

C. carries a higher bandwidth that multimode fiber

D. costs less than multimode fiber

E. operates over less distance than multimode fiber

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 11:

Which type of transceiver module is used for 40 Gigabit Ethernet connectivity?

A. SFP+

B. GBIC

C. QSFP+

D. XFP

Correct Answer: C


New Question 12:

What is the line speed of a DS0 in North America?

A. 16 kbps

B. 32 kbps

C. 64 kbps

D. 128 kbps

Correct Answer: C


New Question 13:

Which two statements about a SmartJack are true? (Choose two.)

A. It provides signal conversion.

B. It acts as a concentration point for dial-in and dial-out connections.

C. It operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.

D. It provides channel testing.

E. It regenerates the signal to compensate for signal degradation from line transmission.

Correct Answer: AE


New Question 14:

The pins on an RJ-45 cable plug are numbered from 1 through 8. When the metal pins of the plug are facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets of pins are looped on an RJ-45 56K loopback plug? (Choose two.)

A. pins 2 and 7

B. pins 2 and 8

C. pins 2 and 5

D. pins 1 and 7

E. pins 1 and 4

Correct Answer: CE


New Question 15:

Which type of memory is used to permanently store Cisco IOS Software?

A. NVRAM

B. flash

C. SRAM

D. DRAM

Correct Answer: A

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Prepare for the 300-720 SESA exam: Use the newly updated 300-720 SESA dumps

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New Question 1:

Which SMTP extension does Cisco ESA support for email security?

A. ETRN

B. UTF8SMTP

C. PIPELINING

D. STARTTLS

View Answer


New Question 2:

Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting into the Cisco ESA?

A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering

B. Connection Reputation Filtering

C. Talos Reputation Filtering

D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering

View Answer


New Question 3:

Which benefit does enabling external spam quarantine on Cisco SMA provide?

A. ability to back up spam quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console

B. access to the spam quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete

C. ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate

D. ability to consolidate spam quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESA to one central console

View Answer


New Question 4:

When email authentication is configured on Cisco ESA, which two key types should be selected on the signing profile? (Choose two.)

A. DKIM

B. Public Keys

C. Domain Keys

D. Symmetric Keys

E. Private Keys

View Answer


New Question 5:

What are two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject

B. workqueue

C. action

D. delivery

E. quarantine

View Answer


New Question 6:

Which two action types are performed by Cisco ESA message filters? (Choose two.)

A. non-final actions

B. filter actions

C. discard actions

D. final actions

E. quarantine actions

View Answer


New Question 7:

Which setting affects the aggressiveness of spam detection?

A. protection level

B. spam threshold

C. spam timeout

D. maximum depth of recursion scan

View Answer


New Question 8:

What is the order of virus scanning when multilayer antivirus scanning is configured?

A. The default engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

B. The Sophos engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

C. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the default engine scans for viruses second.

D. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the Sophos engine scans for viruses second.

View Answer

If you configure multi-layer anti-virus scanning, the Cisco appliance performs virus scanning with the McAfee engine first and the Sophos engine second. It scans messages using both engines, unless the McAfee engine detects a virus. If the McAfee engine detects a virus, the Cisco appliance performs the anti-virus actions (repairing, quarantining, etc.) defined for the mail policy.


New Question 9:

What are two prerequisites for implementing undesirable URL protection in Cisco ESA? (Choose two.)

A. Enable outbreak filters.

B. Enable email relay.

C. Enable antispam scanning.

D. Enable port bouncing.

E. Enable antivirus scanning.

View Answer


New Question 10:

Which suboption must be selected when LDAP is configured for Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication?

A. Designate as the active query

B. Update Frequency

C. Server Priority

D. Entity ID

View Answer


New Question 11:

What is the maximum message size that can be configured for encryption on the Cisco ESA?

A. 20 MB

B. 25 MB

C. 15 MB

D. 30 MB

View Answer


New Question 12:

An analyst creates a new content dictionary to use with Forged Email Detection. Which entry will be added into the dictionary?

A. mycompany.com

B. Alpha Beta

C. ^Alpha\ Beta$

D. [email protected]

View Answer


New Question 13:

Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safelist?

A. message filter

B. antivirus scanning

C. outbreak filter

D. antispam scanning

View Answer


New Question 14:

Which two query types are available when an LDAP profile is configured? (Choose two.)

A. proxy consolidation

B. user

C. recursive

D. group

E. routing

View Answer


New Question 15:

Which action is a valid fallback when a client certificate is unavailable during SMTP authentication on Cisco ESA?

A. LDAP Query

B. SMTP AUTH

C. SMTP TLS

D. LDAP BIND

View Answer

Verify the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:DADACBDADBCACAAAADEB

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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 500-560
Exam Name: Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions Exam
Certification: Cisco Express Specialization – Networking Track
Duration: 60 minutes
Languages: English
Price:
Number of Questions: 45 – 55
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Cisco 500-560 exam questions online practice test:

Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

What is one feature of MV cameras that allows users to optimize video retention?

A. zoom lens

B. motion-based retention

C. low bit rate and frame rate

D. high definition

Question 2:

Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing what you intended it to do?

A. Cisco DNA Assurance

B. Cisco ACI Anywhere

C. Cisco DNA Spaces

D. Cisco HyperFlex

Question 3:

What is one capability of the Catalyst 9200 web user interface?

A. integrating with compatible Cisco routers

B. providing AMP support

C. opening a case with Cisco Technical Assistance Center

D. monitoring selected sections on the dashboard

Question 4:

Where on the Web User interface can customers find details of application visibility and control?

A. the monitoring panel

B. the dashboard

C. configuration

D. troubleshooting

Question 5:

Which combination of MS switch models has supported foe physical stacking with each other?

A. MS120-8 and MS120-24

B. MS350-48 and MS350-24X

C. MS225-48 and MS350-48

D. MS225-24 and MS425-16

Question 6:

What is one benefit of the Cisco 1100 ISR router over the 900 ISR router for mid-size organizations?

A. The 1100 ISR provides support for xDSL types of WAN interfaces

B. The 1100 ISR is compatible with all Cisco switches.

C. The 1100 ISR provides APIC support.

D. The 1100 ISR includes a built-in firewall and advanced QOS features.

Question 7:

Which statement is true about Cisco Mobility Express?

A. It must be connected to a separate physical wireless controller to provide full enterprise features.

B. It can be deployed in under 10 minutes with an easy 3-stepover-the-air configuration wizard.

C. It comes with a simple, easy-to-use vManage dashboard.

D. Customers must purchase a license to support more than 50 APs.

Question 8:

Which is an SKU for Mobility Express?

A. AIR-AP1815W-X-K9

B. AlR-AP28021-K9

C. AIR-AP18151-K9C

D. AlR-AP18521-K9

Question 9:

What is one benefit of the Aironet 4800 AP?

A. cost-effectiveness for small-to-medium-sized deployments

B. modularity for investment protection

C. Cisco CleanAir

D. industry-leading hyper location

Question 10:

Which Cisco product is the network management system, foundational controller, and analytics platform all the center of ……. network?

A. Cisco DNA Spaces

B. Cisco Meraki

C. Cisco DNA Center

D. Cisco Wireless Solutions

Question 11:

What feature of the Catalyst does 2960-L allow customers to get a small branch or office network running within minutes?

A. support for Cisco DNA center

B. on-box web interface for configuration

C. flexible deployments with StackWise-160

D. complete CLI support

Question 12:

Which is a function performed by the dedicated third radio in MR access points?

A. RF optimization (Auto RF)

B. WLAN controller

C. Site survey planning

D. DHCP addressing

Question 13:

Which three product capabilities allow Cisco DNA Spaces to deliver business value?

A. Sense, Act, and Partner

B. View, Interpret, and Act

C. See, Anticipate and Respond

D. See, Act, and Extend

Question 14:

What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX Security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)

B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)

C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

Question 15:

Which statement correctly describes how Cisco Meraki devices behave should they be unable to contact the Meraki Cloud server?

A. The network devices will attempt to establish a connection to a locally hosted database server that has been configured for high availability.

B. The devices may be re-initiated into a backup mode if an administrator manually intervenes using a direct, local connection.

C. The network stops passing traffic across all devices and the interfaces including any connected non-Cisco Meraki devices.

D. The network devices continue to function normally (traffic lows at full rate) but management and configuration functions are interrupted.

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:BADBBCBCDCBADBD

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https://www.lead4pass.com/n10-008.html (Total Questions: 227 Q&A) [Updated 2022 Total Questions: 384 Q&A] The complete dumps contain two modes: PDF and VCE, which you can choose arbitrarily.

[Updated 2022] N10-008 Exam Question and Answers

QUESTION 1:

A network administrator is installing a new IDS device that will collect logs and alert the administrator of breaches.
The network infrastructure includes a modern, firewall, and core and access switches.
The modem is ISP provided and only forwards packets from the data circuit.
The firewall handles stateful packet inspection, the ACL, and application layer filtering.
Which of the following describes where the administrator should install the IDS device on the network to collect the MOST relevant information?

A. In front of the modem and firewall
B. Between the modem and firewall
C. Behind the firewall on the core switch
D. After the access switch

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2:

A network administrator is implementing OSPF on all of a company\’s network devices. Which of the following will MOST likely replace all the company\’s hubs?

A. A Layer 3 switch
B. A proxy server
C. A NGFW
D. A WLAN controller

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3:

Which of the following OSI model layers is where conversations between applications are established, coordinated, and terminated?

A. Session
B. Physical
C. Presentation
D. Data link

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4:

An administrator needs to connect to a server to install security patches. The administrator requests that port 3389 be allowed through the firewall. Which of the following access methods is the administrator looking to use?

A. SSH
B. Telnet
C. SFTP
D. RDP

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5:

After rebooting a PC, a user is no longer able to connect to the corporate network. As a test, the technician plugs a different laptop into the same network jack and receives an IP address of 169.254.112.137. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?

A. DHCP scope exhaustion
B. Improper DNS setting
C. Incorrect ACL setting
D. Port-security violation

Correct Answer: A

[Updated 2022] Get more Comptia N10-008 exam questions and answers

CompTIA N10-008 free dumps of the latest updates

Take the test, the answer will be announced at the end of the article

Question 1:

SIMULATION

You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 Access Points and a single switch. The network must meet the following parameters:

The SSIDs need to be configured as CorpNet with a key of S3cr3t!

The wireless signals should not interfere with each other The subnet the Access Points and switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum The Access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed

INSTRUCTONS

Click on the wireless devices and review their information and adjust the settings of the access points to meet the given requirements.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

comptia n10-008 exam questions q1 comptia n10-008 exam questions q1-1 comptia n10-008 exam questions q1-2 comptia n10-008 exam questions q1-3

Correct Answer: See below.

On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows

Access Point Name AP1 IP Address 192.168.1.3 Gateway 192.168.1.2

SSID corpnet

SSID Broadcast yes

Mode G

Channel 1

Speed Auto

Duplex Auto

WPA

Passphrase S3cr3t!

Exhibit 2 as follows

Access Point Name AP2

IP Address 192.168.1.4

Gateway 192.168.1.2

SSID corpnet

SSID Broadcast yes

Mode G

Channel 6

Speed Auto

Duplex Auto

WPA

Passphrase S3cr3t!

Exhibit 3 as follows

Access Point Name AP3

IP Address 192.168.1.5

Gateway 192.168.1.2

SSID corpnet

SSID Broadcast yes

Mode G

Channel 11

Speed Auto

Duplex Auto

WPA

Passphrase S3cr3t!

Question 2:

SIMULATION

You are tasked with verifying the following requirements are met in order to ensure network security.

Requirements:

Datacenter

-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage

-Provide a dedicated server to resolve IP addresses and hostnames correctly and handle port 53 traffic Building A

-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage

-Provide devices to support 5 additional different office users

-Add an additional mobile user

-Replace the Telnet server with a more secure solution Screened subnet

-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage

Provide a server to handle external 80/443 traffic

Provide a server to handle port 20/21 traffic

INSTRUCTIONS

Drag and drop objects onto the appropriate locations. Objects can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled.

Available objects are located in both the Servers and Devices tabs of the Drag and Drop menu.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

comptia n10-008 exam questions q2

Correct Answer: See below.

Top left subnet – 206.208.134.0/28

Top right subnet – 10.72.63.0/28

Bottom subnet – 192.168.11.0/28

Screened Subnet devices – Web server, FTP server

Building A devices – SSH server top left, workstations on all 5 on the right, laptop on bottom left

DataCenter devices – DNS server.

 

Question 3:

A network administrator has discovered a low-end managed switch connoted to the company LAN. While reading about the device\’s specifications on the manufacturer\’s website, the administrator discovers the switch does not support a command line interface for administration. Which of the following remote access methods should the administrator use to log in the switch?

A. install a VNC plugin on the web Browser

B. Connect to the HTTPS management interface

C. Replace the managed switch with an unmanaged switch.

D. Establish an SSH session.

Question 4:

A company needs to be able to restore 100% of its data from any single day\’s backup. Which of the following backup types should the company use?

A. Full

B. Incremental

C. snapshot

D. Differential

Question 5:

A company\’s users have been reporting excessive latency when connecting to the Internet. The network administration team submitted a change request to upgrade all the obsolete network equipment from 100Mbps to 1Gbps and It was approved. Which of the following documentation types will be needed to measure the success or failure of the upgrade project?

A. Network performance baseline

B. Network configuration documents

C. Equipment Implementation Instructions

D. Inventory management documentation

Question 6:

A network team has reopened multiple outages caused by unauthorized access to the IDF. Which of the following would BEST prevent this issue from reoccurring?

A. Video surveillance

B. Badge readers

C. Motion sensors

D. Tamper switches

Question 7:

A new network Technician is responsible for bringing a building onto the corporate network. The technician is not aware of the proper settings for the new switches. Which of the following should the technician reference to find these settings?

A. iDF/MDF documentation

B. Change management plan

C. Configuration baseline

D. Standard operating procedures

Question 8:

A technician needs to back up network devices to a central location to prepare for a natural disaster. Which of the following should the technician use?

A. VPN

B. TFTP

C. RDP

D. VNC

Question 9:

A user has called the help desk with a problem reaching certain servers within the organization. The organization is using RFC 1819 for internal networks. The servers having trouble are configured with the following IP addresses: 192. 130.

135. 5 and 192. 130. 135. 6.

The user cannot connect to the correct servers. Which of the following explain why this is happening to the user?

A. The network has been configured with an inappropriate scheme

B. The serves are periodical/ going offline and rejecting the connection.

C. The default route in the user\’s computer points to the wrong upstream device.

D. The IPS system is flagging the traffic as suspicious and terminating the connection.

Question 10:

A network administrator plans to install network connectivity at a new remote office location. The administrator is concerned about how to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and reconfigure the remote router. The technician should use:

A. an SD card with a backup configuration

B. a TFTP server on the main network for backup configurations

C. a modem using POTS.

D. a second Ethernet interface for remote access.

Question 11:

A new employee is unable to access any network resources. All other users are able to access the network at 100Mbps No IP address, subnet mask or default gateway is displayed on the new employee\’s workstation The network administrator determinates all connectors using the correct standard Upon further investigation the network administrator also notices the following.

Wire map results from the user patch cable lo the patch cable connecting to the switch:

1.

Pins 5 and 7 are short

2.

The distance is 200ft (61m) Additional observations on the switch

1.

The VLAN is set correctly

2.

The port is not disabled

3.

The duplex”;speed settings are correct

4.

Port LEOs are off for that port.

5.

The port is set to untagged.

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the new employee is having network issues?

A. Bad switchport

B. Incorrect pinout

C. Open/short

D. VLAN mismatch

E. Distance limitation

Question 12:

A technician recently installed a new wireless access point for a SOHO with the latest wireless technologies After the installation users with older laptops report their laptops no longer show the wireless network SSID, whereas users with newer equipment do not have this issue. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

A. The passphrase was changed

B. The wireless cards do not support 802 11ac.

C. The security type has been upgraded to WPA2

D. The administrator is not broadcasting the SSID

Question 13:

A network administrator is looking for an out-of-band method for accessing the console ports of a company\’s network devices when working remotely. Which of the following can be deployed as a solution?

A. A hub

B. Abridge

C. A modem

D. A WAP

Question 14:

A network administrator is configuring a link-state routing protocol for traffic. Which of the following routing protocols should be implemented?

A. BGP

B. EIGRP

C. OSPF

D. RIPv2

Question 15:

Which of the following would an organization MOST likely have employees sign before granting access to confidential data?

A. An AUP

B. A BYOD policy

C. An NDA

D. A PUA

Publish the answer

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
See belowSee belowAAACAAAAAAABB

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FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 | CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Exam Solution

FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 is the latest version of Lead4Pass FC0-U61 Dumps, a truly effective solution for the CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ exam.

The FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 version has updated all previous exam questions and answers. The latest FC0-U61 exam questions and answers have been verified and verified by Amazon subject matter experts, and are true and valid.

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FC0-U61 Exam Information:

You should know that FC0-U61 is the exam code for the CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam, see the following for more basic information:

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: FC0-U61
Exam Name: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam
Certification: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+
Price: $130 USD
Length: 60 Minutes
Passing Score: 650 (on a scale of 900)
Number of Questions: Maximum of 75 questions per exam
Format: Multiple choice
languages: English

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QUESTION 1:

A user wants to ensure port 3389 is open for remote desktop on a PC. Which of the following describes where the user should verify the port is open?

A. Antivirus
B. Anti-malware
C. Device Manager
D. Host firewall

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2:

Which of the following BEST describes a technology that allows multiple users to create and edit reports at the same time?

A. Text file on a shared drive
B. Managed relational database
C. Informational intranet page
D. Locally installed productivity software

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

Malware infections are being caused by websites. Which of the following settings will help prevent infections caused by Internet browsing?

A. Turn on private browsing
B. Delete browsing history on program close.
C. Notify when downloads are complete.
D. Configure prompting before downloading content.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

Which of the following would allow an application to run automatically when a computer is started?

A. Processes
B. Journaling
C. Services
D. Drivers

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

A user connects a company computer to free WiFi at a local coffee shop. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

A. Information on this network is encrypted.
B. The information on the network can be seen by others.
C. It is safe to access company information using the network.
D. Private browsing mode protects the information on the network.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6:

Which of the following examples are MOST typical of fault tolerance practices used in business continuity planning? (Choose two.)

A. RAID storage
B. Uninterruptible power supplies
C. Off-site backups
D. Private cloud servers
E. Virtual-hosted desktops
F. Warm sites

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7:

Which of the following is a reason why complex passwords are required?

A. To encourage password variety
B. To prevent someone from guessing them
C. To make them harder to remember
D. To reduce social engineering attacks

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8:

A security administrator is adding accounting features to a web application. Which of the following would be the BEST action?

A. Enhance the granularity of user permissions.
B. Enable an audit log.
C. Implement smart card login.
D. Adopt a procedure for adding accounts.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

A technician is installing a new wireless network and wants to secure the wireless network to prevent unauthorized access. Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure?

A. WPA
B. SSID
C. WEP
D. WPA2

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

A developer is in the process of creating a program and has started to draft the logic of the code. This process is an example of:

A. drawing a value stream map.
B. developing pseudocode.
C. identifying functions.
D. compiling the language.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11:

A schema is a critical part of which the following?

A. Relational database
B. Key/value database
C. Document database
D. NoSQL database

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

Which of the following is a logical structure for storing files?

A. Folder
B. Extension
C. Permissions
D. Shortcut

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

A systems administrator wants to run a script but does not have access to the graphical user interface. Which of the following can be used to run scripts?

A. Text editor
B. Word processor
C. Command line
D. Spreadsheet

Correct Answer: C

……

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CS0-002 Exam Dumps

You can take your CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst exam by studying the latest CS0-002 exam dumps.
Choose to get CS0-002 exam dumps to complete your CompTIA CySA+ certification exam.
It is recommended to choose Lead4Pass CS0-002 exam dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/cs0-002.html online for reading. All the exam questions and answers in CS0-002 exam dumps are required to be read and memorized well to make sure you can pass the CompTIA CySA+ exam successfully.

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QUESTION 1:

An organization is attempting to harden its web servers and reduce the information that might be disclosed by potential attackers. A security analyst is reviewing vulnerability scan results from a recent web server scan.
Portions of the scan results are shown below:

Which of the following lines indicates information disclosure about the host that needs to be remediated?

A. Response: :\Documents\MarySmith\mailingList.pdf
B. Finding#5144322
C. First Time Detected 10 Nov 2015 09:00 GMT-0600
D. Access Path: http://myOrg.com/mailingList.htm
E. Request: GET http://myOrg.com/mailingList.aspx?content=volunteer

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A company has a popular shopping cart website hosted in geographically diverse locations. The company has started hosting static content on a content delivery network (CDN) to improve performance. The CDN provider has reported the company is occasionally sending attack traffic to other CDN-hosted targets.
Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?

A. The CDN provider has mistakenly performed a GeoIP mapping to the company.
B. The CDN provider has misclassified the network traffic as hostile.
C. A vulnerability scan has been tuned to exclude web assets hosted by the CDN.
D. The company has been breached, and customer PII is being exfiltrated to the CDN.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

A security analyst is assisting with a computer crime investigation and has been asked to secure a PC and deliver it to the forensic lab. Which of the following items would be MOST helpful to secure the PC? (Choose three.)

A. Tamper-proof seals
B. Faraday cage
C. Chain of custody form
D. Drive eraser
E. Write blockers
F. Network tap
G. Multimeter

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4:

Which of the following stakeholders would need to be aware of an e-discovery notice received by the security office about an ongoing case within the manufacturing department?

A. Board of trustees
B. Human resources
C. Legal D. Marketing

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5:

An analyst was investigating the attack that took place on the network. A user was able to access the system without proper authentication. Which of the following will the analyst recommend, related to management approaches, in order to control access? (Choose three.)

A. RBAC
B. LEAP
C. DAC
D. PEAP
E. MAC
F. SCAP
G. BCP

Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6:

A company\’s IDP/DLP solution triggered the following alerts:

Which of the following alerts should a security analyst investigate FIRST?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7:

A software assurance lab is performing a dynamic assessment on an application by automatically generating and inputting different, random data sets to attempt to cause an error/failure condition. Which of the following software assessment capabilities is the lab performing AND during which phase of the SDLC should this occur? (Select two.)

A. Fuzzing
B. Behavior modeling
C. Static code analysis
D. Prototyping phase
E. Requirements phase
F. Planning phase

Correct Answer: AD
Reference: http://www.brighthub.com/computing/smb-security/articles/9956.aspx

QUESTION 8:

A company has implemented WPA2, a 20-character minimum for the WiFi passphrase, and a new WiFi passphrase every 30 days, and has disabled SSID broadcast on all wireless access points. Which of the following is the company trying to mitigate?

A. Downgrade attacks
B. Rainbow tables
C. SSL pinning
D. Forced deauthentication

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

A security operations team was alerted to abnormal DNS activity coming from a user\’s machine. The team performed a forensic investigation and discovered a host had been compromised. Malicious code was using DNS as a tunnel to extract data from the client machine, which had been leaked and transferred to an unsecured public Internet site. Which of the following BEST describes the attack?

A. Phishing
B. Pharming
C. Cache poisoning
D. Data exfiltration

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

During a routine log review, a security analyst has found the following commands that cannot be identified from the Bash history log on the root user:

Which of the following commands should the analyst investigate FIRST?

A. Line 1
B. Line 2
C. Line 3
D. Line 4
E. Line 5
F. Line 6

Correct Answer: B

……


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