CyberOps Professional 350-201 Exam Experience Sharing

The most valuable experience provided by multiple successful CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam candidates, sharing how to successfully pass this exam.

Is the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam difficult?

Is the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam difficult?

The difficulty level of the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam can vary from person to person and depends on factors such as their prior experience and knowledge in the field, preparation time, and study habits. However, in general, the 350-201 exam is considered to be a challenging certification exam that tests a candidate’s ability to understand and apply complex cybersecurity concepts.

It is recommended to have hands-on experience and a thorough understanding of the exam content and format before taking the exam.

Best Ways to Take the CyberOps Professional 350-201 Certification Exam

Best Ways to Take the CyberOps Professional 350-201 Certification Exam

To prepare for the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam, here are some best practices:

1. Study the exam objectives and familiarize yourself with the exam format and content.

2. Use Cisco’s official course materials and study resources, such as the “Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)” course and the Cisco CyberOps Associate certification exam guide.

3. Practical experience with the relevant technology is essential. Consider setting up a lab environment or using a simulation tool for practice. Welcome to Lead4Pass 350-201 Dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-201.html which includes PDF study files and VCE practice exam tools to help you study for success with ease.

4. Join study groups or online forums to collaborate with others and discuss questions and best practices.

5. Regularly take practice exams to gauge your understanding of the material and identify areas where you need more study.

6. Stay current with industry developments and updates by regularly reading relevant blogs, whitepapers, and other resources.

Remember, the more you practice, the better prepared you’ll be for the exam. Good luck!

What are the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam details

What are the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam details?

1. The Cisco CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam is a 120-minute, 65-75 multiple choice, and simulation-based test.

2. The exam is designed to measure the candidate’s ability to understand, analyze and respond to security threats in a complex network environment.

3. The topics covered in the exam include security concepts, security monitoring, security incidents, analysis, and response procedures.

4. The minimum passing score for the exam is not publicly disclosed by Cisco.

5. The exam is available in English and Japanese languages and can be taken at any Cisco-authorized testing center or online through the Pearson VUE platform.

CyberOps Professional 350-201 Online Practice

TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam codeExam answers
Free15Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR)350-201View
Question 1:

A company\’s web server availability was breached by a DDoS attack and was offline for 3 hours because it was not deemed a critical asset in the incident response playbook. Leadership has requested a risk assessment of the asset. An analyst conducted the risk assessment using the threat sources, events, and vulnerabilities.

Which additional element is needed to calculate the risk?

A. assessment scope

B. event severity and likelihood

C. incident response playbook

D. risk model framework


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

350-201 questions 2

Correct Answer:

350-201 questions 2-1

Question 3:

A Mac laptop user notices that several files have disappeared from their laptop documents folder. While looking for the files, the user notices that the browser history was recently cleared. The user raises a case, and an analyst reviews the network usage and discovers that it is abnormally high.

Which step should be taken to continue the investigation?

A. Run the sudo sys diagnose command

B. Run the sh command

C. Run the w command

D. Run the who command

Reference: https://eclecticlight.co/2016/02/06/the-ultimate-diagnostic-tool-sysdiagnose/


Question 4:

An engineer receives an incident ticket with hundreds of intrusion alerts that require investigation. An analysis of the incident log shows that the alerts are from trusted IP addresses and internal devices. The final incident report stated that these alerts were false positives and that no intrusions were detected.

What action should be taken to harden the network?

A. Move the IPS to after the firewall facing the internal network

B. Move the IPS to before the firewall facing the outside network

C. Configure the proxy service on the IPS

D. Configure reverse port forwarding on the IPS


Question 5:
350-201 questions 5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps mitigate attacks on the webserver from the Internet? (Choose two.)

A. Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only TLS 1.3

B. Implement a proxy server in the DMZ network

C. Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only external connections

D. Move the webserver to the internal network


Question 6:

An organization had an incident with the network availability during which devices unexpectedly malfunctioned. An engineer is investigating the incident and found that the memory pool buffer usage reached a peak before the malfunction. Which action should the engineer take to prevent this issue from reoccurring?

A. Disable memory limit.

B. Disable CPU threshold trap toward the SNMP server.

C. Enable memory tracking notifications.

D. Enable memory threshold notifications.


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing static analysis of a file received and reported by a user. Which risk is indicated in this STIX?

350-201 questions 7

A. The file is redirecting users to a website that requests privilege escalations from the user.

B. The file is redirecting users to the website that is downloading ransomware to encrypt files.

C. The file is redirecting users to a website that harvests cookies and stored account information.

D. The file redirects users to a website that is determining users’ geographic location.


Question 8:

An analyst is alerted for a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware. Which tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?

A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu

B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu

C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu

D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu


Question 9:

An analyst received multiple alerts on the SIEM console of users that are navigating to malicious URLs. The analyst needs to automate the task of receiving alerts and processing the data for further investigations. Three variables are available from the SIEM console to include in an automation script: console_ip, api_token, and reference_set_name. What must be added to this script to receive a successful HTTP response?

#!/usr/bin/pythonimport sysimport requests

A. {1}, {2}

B. {1}, {3}

C. console_ip, api_token

D. console_ip, reference_set_name


Question 10:

A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching?

A. Identify the business applications running on the assets

B. Update software to patch third-party software

C. Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit

D. Fix applications according to the risk scores


Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the function on the left onto the mechanism on the right.

Select and Place:

350-201 questions 11

Correct Answer:

350-201 questions 11-1

Question 12:

A security architect is working in a processing center and must implement a DLP solution to detect and prevent any type of copy-and-paste attempts of sensitive data within unapproved applications and removable devices. Which technical architecture must be used?

A. DLP for data in motion

B. DLP for removable data

C. DLP for data in use

D. DLP for data at rest

Reference: https://www.endpointprotector.com/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp/


Question 13:
350-201 questions 13

Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script?

A. Seeds for existing domains are checked

B. A search is conducted for additional seeds

C. Domains are compared to seed rules

D. A list of domains as seeds is blocked


Question 14:

What is needed to assess risk mitigation effectiveness in an organization?

A. analysis of key performance indicators

B. compliance with security standards

C. cost-effectiveness of control measures

D. an updated list of vulnerable systems


Question 15:

Patient views information that is not theirs when they sign in to the hospital\’s online portal. The patient calls the support center at the hospital but continues to be put on hold because other patients are experiencing the same issue. An incident has been declared, and an engineer is now on the incident bridge as the CyberOps Tier 3 Analyst. There is a concern about the disclosure of PII occurring in real time.

What is the first step the analyst should take to address this incident?

A. Evaluate visibility tools to determine if external access resulted in tampering

B. Contact the third-party handling provider to respond to the incident as critical

C. Turn off all access to the patient portal to secure patient records

D. Review system and application logs to identify errors in the postal code

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CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam answers

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Is the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam worth it?

The value of a certification exam such as the CyberOps Professional 350-201 depends on individual goals and career aspirations.

In general, certifications can demonstrate a level of knowledge and skills in a specific area, which can be attractive to potential employers. They can also provide opportunities for professional growth and can increase earning potential.

However, the value of a certification is subjective and varies based on individual circumstances and the current job market demand for the skills and knowledge tested in the exam. It’s important to weigh the cost and time investment of obtaining certification against its potential benefits.

Rewards for successfully passing the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam

Rewards for successfully passing the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam

Upon successful completion of the Cisco 350-201 CyberOps Professional certification exam, the following rewards are typically achieved:

1. Recognition of expertise in cybersecurity operations and threat detection.

2. Improved job prospects and higher earning potential in the cybersecurity field.

3. Validation of skills and knowledge in cybersecurity operations and analysis.

4. Access to a network of professionals in the cybersecurity industry.

5. Increased credibility and confidence in performing cybersecurity operations.

6. Opportunities for advancement and leadership in the cybersecurity field.

7. Possibility of increased responsibilities and opportunities for professional growth.

Latest Lead4Pass 220-1101 dumps for CompTIA A+ 2023

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Share some Lead4Pass 220-1101 dumps exam questions online for free:

Number of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
15CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1220-1101220-1001 dumps
QUESTION 1:

A technician is upgrading a legacy wireless router for a home user. After installing the new router and configuring the SSID to be the same, none of the devices will connect to the network.

Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?

A. OHCP pool configuration

B. MAC filtering list

C. Wireless protocol settings

D. ONS servers

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2:

Several users who share a multifunction printer in an office have reported unintended, thin, vertical lines that cover the entire height of every page printed from the printer.

Which of the following steps should a technician complete in order to MOST likely resolve this issue?

A. Replace the printer paper with a new ream.

B. Clear the print spooler on each computer.

C. Reinstall the printer driver on each computer

D. Perform the drum-cleaning procedure.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

A user’s computer is not receiving a network connection. The technician confirms that the connection seems to be down and looks for the user’s port on the patch panel. The port and patch panel are not labeled.

Which of the following network tools should the technician use to identify the port?

A. Network tap

B. Punchdown tool

C. Toner probe

D. Crimper

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Toner Probe Many cable testers also incorporate the function of a toner probe, which is used to identify a cable from within a bundle.

This may be necessary when the cables have not been labeled properly. The tone generator is connected to the cable using an RJ45 jack and applies a continuous audio signal on the cable. The probe is used to detect the signal and follow the cable over ceilings and through ducts or identify it from within the rest of the bundle.

QUESTION 4:

A technician is configuring a workstation to be used as a VM host. After installing the necessary software, the technician is unable to create any VMs.

Which of the following actions should be performed?

A. Disable the BIOS password.

B. Enable TPM.

C. Enable multithreading.

D. Enable Fast Startup.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

If you want to install Windows 11 on a virtual machine using Hyper-V, you will have to use a “Generation 2” VM and enable the “trusted platform module” (TPM) and Secure Boot options. Otherwise, the OS won’t install.

Starting with Windows 11, Microsoft is changing the system requirement and making TPM 2.0 and Secure Boot a prerequisite to perform an in-place upgrade or clean install the new version on any device. This is in addition to the new 4GB of RAM and at least 64GB of storage.

quoted from here:
https://pureinfotech.com/enable-tpm-secure-boot-hyperv-install-windows-11/
Furthermore, Multithreading is not a requirement for hyper-v hosting.

QUESTION 5:

A company just bought a printer capable of automatically printing on both sides of the paper After installation, however, the technician can only print on both sides of the paper manually.

Which of the following should the technician do to fix the issue?

A. Install the most recent firmware upgrade available for the printer.

B. Contact the vendor for a hardware replacement.

C. Reinstall the printer software and drivers, and then restart the printer.

D. Read the installation manual and configure duplex settings.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

A user submitted a support ticket that states all of the printouts from a laser printer appear to have double images imposed on them. A review of past printer support tickets shows that the maintenance kit has not been installed in more than a year.

Which of the following printer consumables is MOST likely causing the issue?

A. Separation pad

B. Transfer roller

C. Ink cartridge

D. Fuser

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
https://www.vingle.net/posts/4651722

QUESTION 7:

An organization maintains various record types, including health and criminal justice records. Which of the following cloud environments is the organization MOST likely to use to limit the attack surface?

A. Public

B. Hybrid

C. Community

D. Private

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8:

Which of the following describes the main difference between T568A and T568B cabling standards?

A. The T568B data transfer rate is higher than T568A.

B. The green and orange cables are interchanged.

C. T568A is used in blue cables, and T568B is used in green cables.

D. The standards use different cable connectors.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

A technician is replacing a ribbon on a printer that produces faded text and Images when priming. Which of the following types of primers is the technician working on?

A. Impact

B. Inkjet

C. Laser

D. Thermal

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

A user on the marketing team uses various multimedia applications that consume a lot of memory. The user needs to install more RAM to run these applications effectively. When the user opens the computer case, the user sees four slots in two sets of colors.

Which of the following memory types is MOST likely required?

A. Dual-channel

B. Triple-channel

C. Single-channel

D. Quad-channel

E. Error correction code RAM

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

A system administrator has been tasked with allowing SMTP traffic through the system’s host-based firewall. Which of the following ports should the administrator enable?

A. 23

B. 25

C. 80

D. 161

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

The Chief Executive Officer wants to ensure company data is stored in a manner that provides the company with complete control over how the data is managed.

Which of the following is the BEST cloud deployment model for this request?

A. Community

B. Hybrid

C. Public

D. Private

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13:

A help desk technician has been tasked with installing an IP phone in a small office with an unmanaged switch. When connected to an RJ45 receptacle, the phone does not boot.

Which of the following is the QUICKEST way to resolve this issue?

A. Upgrade the Ethernet cable to the latest specification.

B. Replace the phone.

C. Install a PoE injector.

D. Change ports on the switch.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://intellinetnetwork.eu/pages/what-is-a-poe-injector

QUESTION 14:

A user sends a print job to a network printer, and the print job uses double the amount of paper as expected. Which of the following should the user configure to get the expected result?

A. Duplex

B. Collate

C. Landscape

D. Transparency

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15:

Which of the following is a method that can be used to securely connect a remote user’s laptop to a corporate server?

A. WAN

B. VPN

C. SSL

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: B


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Lead4Pass fc0-u61 dumps Guaranteed 2022-2023 CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam Pass

2022-2023 CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam

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Number of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
15CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification ExamFC0-U61FC0-U61 dumps
Question 1:

An end user\’s computer has been failing to open its word-processing software. An IT technician successfully solves the problem. Which of the following best describes the technician\’s NEXT step?

A. Restart the computer.

B. Contact other users.

C. Disconnect the peripherals.

D. Document the findings.

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

Ann, a user, wants to ensure that if her credentials are compromised, they cannot be used to access all of her logins or accounts. Which of the following best practices should she implement?

A. Password history

B. Password length

C. Password reuse

D. Password complexity

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:

A company is developing an application that will be used to simplify typing on a virtual keyboard. This will MOST likely be installed on:

A. a mobile OS.

B. a workstation OS.

C. a server OS.

D. an embedded OS.

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

Which of the following encryption types would BEST be used to protect data on a shared computer?

A. File

B. VPN

C. Email

D. Mobile

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

The IT department has established a new password policy for employees. Specifically, the policy reads:

Passwords must not contain common dictionary words Passwords must contain at least one special character. Passwords must be different from the last six passwords used. Passwords must use at least one capital letter or number.

Which of the following practices is being employed? (Select TWO).

A. Password lockout

B. Password complexity

C. Password expiration

D. Passwords history

E. Password length

F. Password age

Correct Answer: BD

Question 6:

A user is buying a laptop. The user will have a lot of personal and confidential information on the laptop. The user wants to ensure data cannot be accessed by anyone, even if the laptop is stolen.

Which of the following should be set up to accomplish this?

A. Encryption

B. Compression

C. Permissions

D. Auditing

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

A developer needs to add a table to a database. Which of the following database activities should the user perform?

A. UPDATE

B. ALTER

C. CREATE

D. REPORT

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

A user is having issues connecting to the Internet through a web browser; however, the user is receiving email and instant messages.

Which of the following should the user do to BEST resolve the issue?

A. Validate the certificate.

B. Verify the proxy settings.

C. Disable the pop-up blocker.

D. Clear the browser cache.

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

Which of the following WiFi security options would create the MOST need for a VPN connection on the client device?

A. Open

B. WEP

C. WPA

D. WPA2

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

A user at a company visits a weather website often during the day. The user browses the site in the afternoon and notices that the temperature listed is from the morning and is not the current temperature.

The user closes the page and tries again with the same result.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. Proxy server

B. Browser add-on

C. Corrupted cache

D. Script blocker

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Which of the following would be considered the BEST method of securely distributing medical records?

A. Encrypted flash drive

B. Social networking sites

C. Fax

D. FTP file sharing

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

A remote user, who is working from home, requires significant bandwidth to connect to the corporate systems.

Which of the following types of Internet service connections would BEST meet the user\’s needs?

A. T1 line

B. Satellite

C. Fiber optic

D. DSL

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

Which of the following is primarily a confidentiality concern?

A. Eavesdropping

B. Impersonating

C. Destructing

D. Altering

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

When developing a game, a developer creates a boss object that has the ability to jump. Which of the following programming concepts does jump represent?

A. Method

B. Object

C. Property

D. Attribute

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

Ann, a user, connects to the corporate WiFi and tries to browse the Internet. Ann finds that she can only get to local (intranet) pages.

Which of the following actions would MOST likely fix the problem?

A. Renew the IP address.

B. Configure the browser proxy settings.

C. Clear the browser cache.

D. Disable the pop-up blocker

Correct Answer: B


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[Update Dec 2022] CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CS0-002 Exam Dumps

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Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timeLast updated
15CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+)Lead4PassDec 06, 2022CS0-002 dumps
NEW QUESTION 1:

Due to new regulations, a company has decided to institute an organizational vulnerability management program and assign the function to the security team. Which of the following frameworks would BEST support the program? (Choose two.)

A. COBIT
B. NIST
C. ISO 27000 series
D. ITIL
E. COSO

Correct Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 2:

A malicious hacker wants to gather guest credentials on a hotel 802.11 network. Which of the following tools is the malicious hacker going to use to gain access to information found on the hotel network?

A. Nikto
B. Aircrak-ng
C. Nessus
D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3:

A company\’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) published an Internet usage policy that prohibits employees from accessing unauthorized websites. The IT department whitelisted websites used for business needs.

The CISO wants the security analyst to recommend a solution that would improve security and support employee morale. Which of the following security recommendations would allow employees to browse non-business-related websites?

A. Implement a virtual machine alternative.
B. Develop a new secured browser.
C. Configure a personal business VLAN.
D. Install kiosks throughout the building.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4:

A security analyst reviews SIEM logs and detects a well-known malicious executable running on a Windows machine.

The up-to-date antivirus cannot detect the malicious executable. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. The malware is lifeless and exists only in physical memory
B. The malware detects and prevents its own execution in a virtual environment
C. The antivirus does not have the malware\’s signature
D. The malware is being executed with administrative privileges

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5:

An organization is attempting to harden its web servers and reduce the information that might be disclosed by potential attackers. A security analyst is reviewing vulnerability scan results from a recent web server scan.

Portions of the scan results are shown below:

new cs0-002 dumps questions 5

Which of the following lines indicates information disclosure about the host that needs to be remediated?

A. Response: :\Documents\MarySmith\mailingList.pdf
B. Finding#5144322
C. First Time Detected 10 Nov 2015 09:00 GMT-0600
D. Access Path: http://myOrg.com/mailingList.htm
E. Request: GET http://myOrg.com/mailingList.aspx?content=volunteer

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6:

To validate local system-hardening requirements, which of the following types of vulnerability scans would work BEST to verify the scanned device meets security policies?

A. SCAP
B. SAST
C. DAST
D. DACS

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/7/html/security_guide/scanning-
the-system-for-configuration-compliance-and-vulnerabilities_security-hardening

NEW QUESTION 7:

A security administrator determines several months after the first instance that a local privileged user has been routinely logging into a server interactively as “root” and browsing the Internet.

The administrator determines this by performing an annual review of the security logs on that server. For which of the following security architecture areas should the administrator recommend review and modification? (Select TWO).

A. Log aggregation and analysis
B. Software assurance
C. Encryption
D. Acceptable use policies
E. Password complexity
F. Network isolation and separation

Correct Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 8:

While conducting research on malicious domains, a threat intelligence analyst received a blue screen of death. The analyst rebooted and received a message stating that the computer had been locked and could only be opened by following the instructions on the screen.

Which of the following combinations describes the MOST likely threat and the PRIMARY mitigation for the threat?

A. Ransomware and update antivirus
B. Account takeover and data backups
C. Ransomware and full disk encryption
D. Ransomware and data backups

Correct Answer: D

NEWW QUESTION 9:

A security analyst discovers the accounting department is hosting an accounts receivable form on a public document service. Anyone with the link can access it. Which of the following threats applies to this situation?

A. Potential data loss to external users
B. Loss of public/private key management
C. Cloud-based authentication attack
D. Insufficient access logging

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10:

Which of the following are the MOST likely reasons to include reporting processes when updating an incident response plan after a breach? (Select TWO).

A. To establish a clear chain of command
B. To meet regulatory requirements for timely reporting
C. To limit reputation damage caused by the breach
D. To remediate vulnerabilities that led to the breach
E. To isolate potential insider threats
F. To provide secure network design changes

Correct Answer: BF

NEW QUESTION 11:

As part of the senior leadership team\’s ongoing risk management activities the Chief Information Security Officer has tasked a security analyst with coordinating the right training and testing methodology to respond to new business initiatives or significant changes to existing ones The management team wants to examine a new business process that would use existing infrastructure to process and store sensitive data.

Which of the following would be appropriate for the security analyst to coordinate?

A. A black-box penetration testing engagement

B. A tabletop exercise

C. Threat modeling

D. A business impact analysis

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12:

Which of the following commands would a security analyst use to make a copy of an image for forensics use?

A. dd
B. wget
C. touch
D. rm

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13:

While analyzing network traffic, a security analyst discovers several computers on the network are connecting to a malicious domain that was blocked by a DNS sinkhole. A new private IP range is now visible, but no change requests were made to add it.

Which of the following is the BEST solution for the security analyst to implement?

A. Block the domain IP at the firewall.
B. Blacklist the new subnet
C. Create an IPS rule.
D. Apply network access control.

Correct Answer: A


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Newly updated 350-401 dumps can help candidates get better

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Read the free 350-401 exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
13Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)Lead4PassNov 10, 2022Oct 08, 2022
NEW QUESTION 1:

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients\’?

new 350-401 exam questions 1
new 350-401 exam questions 1-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2:

Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two.)

A. Increase minimum mandatory data rate

B. Reduce AP transmit power

C. Disable 2.4 GHz and use only 5 GHz.

D. Enable Fastlane.

E. Reduce channel width from 40 MHz to 20 MHz

Correct Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 exam questions 3

What are two results of the NAT configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Packets with a destination of 200.1.1.1 are translated to 10.1.1.1 or .2. respectively.
B. A packet that is sent to 200.1.1.1 from 10.1.1.1 is translated to 209.165.201.1 on R1.
C. R1 looks at the destination IP address of packets entering S0/0 and destined for inside hosts.
D. R1 processes packets entering E0/0 and S0/0 by examining the source IP address.
E. R1 is performing NAT for inside addresses and outside address.

Correct Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 4:

Which A record type should be configured for access points to resolve the IP address of a wireless LAN controller using DNS?

A. CISCO.CONTROLLER.localdomain
B. CISCO.CAPWAP.CONTROLLER.localdomain
C. CISCO-CONTROLLER.localdomain
D. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code construct a script that configure a loopback interface with an IP address (not all options are used)?

Select and Place:

new 350-401 exam questions 5

Correct Answer:

new 350-401 exam questions 5-1

NEW QUESTION 6:

Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments In a VXLAN environment?

A. switch fabric
B. VTEP
C. VNID
D. host switch

Correct Answer: C

VXLAN uses an 8-byte VXLAN header that consists of a 24-bit VNID and a few reserved bits. The VXLAN
header together with the original Ethernet frame goes in the UDP payload. The 24-bit VNID is used to
identify Layer 2 segments and to maintain Layer 2 isolation between the segments.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7-x/vxlan/
configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x/
b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x_chapter_010.html

NEW QUESTION 7:

How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

A. An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.

B. The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C. The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client

D. The client database on the original controller is updated the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8:

What is one primary REST security design principle?

A. fail-safe defaults
B. password hash
C. adding a timestamp in requests
D. OAuth

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 exam questions 9
new 350-401 exam questions 9-1

Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209 165 201 0/27 via BR1?

A. Set the weight attribute to 65.535 on BR1 toward PE1.
B. Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound
C. Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound.
D. Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10:

An engineer must protect the password for the VTY lines against over-the-shoulder attacks. Which configuration should be applied?

A. service password-ncryption
B. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMf8elb4RVV8$seZ/bDA
C. username netadmin secret 7$1$42J36k33008Pyh4QzwXyZ4
D. line vty 0 15 p3ssword XD822j

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11:

An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?

A. logging buffer
B. service timestamps log uptime
C. logging host
D. terminal monitor

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right.

Select and Place:

new 350-401 exam questions 12

Correct Answer:

new q12-1

There are four messages sent between the DHCP Client and DHCP Server: DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER,
DHCPREQUEST and DHCPACKNOWLEDGEMENT. This process is often abbreviated as DORA (for Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledgement).

NEW QUESTION 13:

A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent?

A. container
B. Type 1 hypervisor
C. hardware pass-thru
D. Type 2 hypervisor

Correct Answer: D

In contrast to type 1 hypervisor, a type 2 hypervisor (or hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an operating system and not the physical hardware directly. A big advantage of Type 2 hypervisors is that management console software is not required. Examples of type 2 hypervisor are VMware Workstation (which can run on Windows, Mac and Linux) or Microsoft Virtual PC (only runs on Windows).


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220-1001 and 220-1101

If you have taken the CompTIA A+ certification exam many years ago, you will find that whether it is 220-801, 220-802, 220-901, or 220-902 longer ago. They are not very different, a little change, a modification of the description…

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The latest updated CompTIA A+ 220-1001 Dumps exam questions and answers:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timeOnline Download
13CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1Lead4PassOct 19, 2022CompTIA A+ 220-1001 PDF
NEW QUESTION 1:

A user has a red X In the taskbar on a VM where Internet connectivity is usually located. Which of the following should be checked FIRST II all other operations are working normally on the VM?

A. Patch level of the host
B. Proxy server
C. Virtual switch
D. BIOS

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2:

Which of the following connector types is used to terminate household telephone cabling?

A. RG-6
B. RJ-11
C. RJ-45
D. RG-59

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3:

During a remodel of an auditorium, a second projector was added. The first protector was rotated so the image is duplicated on another section of the front wall Both projectors are connected to the switch through a VGA splitter After the move users report the images on the second projector are normal but images on the first projector are skewed.

Which of the following would correct the issue?

A. Replace the lamp on the projector
B. Adjust the projector\’s keystone
C. Change the projector\’s resolution
D. Power cycle the projector

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4:

Which of the following has a P4 connector to provide a 12V output?

A. EIDE port
B. 24-pin adapter
C. SCSI cable
D. eSATA cable

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5:

After a new laser printer was installed, users began reporting issues. Duplicate copies of print jobs were not delivering fully separated copies; instead, similar pages were being stacked. Which of the following settings MOST likely needed to be checked to correct this issue?

A. Collation
B. Duplexing
C. Orientation
D. Quality

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6:

A technician Is selling up a VM to be used for testing applications in a sandbox environment. The technician selects a quick setup to deploy the client with minimal configuration. The OS is Installed successfully; however, the VM locks up upon the first boot. The host device is operating normally.

Which of the following requirements should the technician review prior to making any changes?

A. Security
B. Resources
C. Network
D. Emulator

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7:

A computer that had been running properly for about three years no longer boots. A technician observes the computer attempting to pass the POST but it beeps three times before crashing. The computer then attempts to boot again and repeats the process.

Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the problem?

A. Mismatched memory speed type

B. Improperly seated memory modules
C. Malfunctioning memory modules
D. Incorrect memory type installed

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8:

A charging pad for a mobile device is no longer working and needs to be replaced. Until then, which of the following alternatives can be used to charge the mobile device?

A. USB-C
B. Ethernet
C. RJ11
D. Coaxial

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9:

A technician receives a call from a user who dropped a laptop and cracked the screen. The user needs it replaced quickly. The technician has to ensure the correct stock parts are in the storeroom.

Which of the following components would the technician MOST likely need to repair the user\’s laptop? (Select TWO)

A. Webcam
B. Microphone
C. Video adapter
D. Bezel
E. Speaker
F. LCD

Correct Answer: DF

NEW QUESTION 10:

A technician is upgrading the RAM in a server-grade laptop for a company\’s Chief Execute Officer (CEO). The CEO cannot afford any downtime. Which of the following is the BEST type of memory module to purchase?

A. LRSIMM
B. DDR4

C. Parity
D. Dual channel

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11:

Which of the following display connector types can transmit either a digital-to-digital signal or an analog-to-analog signal?

A. DVHD
B. DVI-A
C. DVI-I
D. RCA

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12:

A user receives a replacement modem/router combination device from an ISP and plugs it in. A laptop connected to the router via WiFi receives an address in 192.168.0.x range but is unable to access the Internet.

Which of the following would MOST likely resolve the problem?

A. Upgrade the network drivers on the laptop.
B. Change the laptop from a wireless to a wired connection.
C. Register the new cable modem MAC address with the ISP.
D. Update the password on the wireless connection.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13:

A user receives the following error message when powering on a computer:
The hard drive cannot be found. A technician restarts the computer, and it boots the OS normally. Several days later, the user reports another problem, but rebooting the computer does not resolve the issue. The technician replaces the motherboard, keeping the same CPU, battery, RAM, and hard drive. The user cannot authenticate at the login screen Which of the following would BEST explain the causes of the problem? (Select TWO)

A. POST error code beeps indicate RAM failure.

B. The system time is not set correctly in the BIOS
C. The voltage on the coin cell is drained completely
D. UEFI firmware has the Secure Boot setting enabled
E. Capacitors on the motherboard are distended
F. Incorrect settings are booting the wrong device
G. A BSOD error indicates the system is crashing

Correct Answer: CE


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Take the Cisco 200-901 dumps exam questions online practice test:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease time
15Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)Lead4PassSep 30, 2022
New Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Check answer >>

New Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command line is driven interface

Check answer >>

New Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Check answer >>

New Question 4:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Check answer >>

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco 200-901 dumps exam q5

What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?

Cisco 200-901 dumps exam q5-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Check answer >>

New Question 6:

What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?

A. MAC address

B. IPv6 address

C. spanning tree

D. IPv4 address

Check answer >>

New Question 7:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “communication administratively prohibited”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.

B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.

C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus drops traffic.

D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.

Check answer >>

New Question 8:

What is an advantage of a version control system?

A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code

B. ensures that unit tests are written

C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files

D. forces the practice of trunk-based development

Check answer >>

New Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco 200-901 dumps exam q9

What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?

A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

Check answer >>

New Question 10:

A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?

A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.

B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.

C. The server accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.

D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.

Check answer >>

New Question 11:

What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements the desired function.

B. Write a failing test case for the desired function.

C. Reverse engineer the code for the desired function.

D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Check answer >>

New Question 12:

What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?

A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively

B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application

C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address

D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application

Check answer >>

New Question 13:

A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)

A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.

B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.

C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.

D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.

E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.

Check answer >>

New Question 14:

What operation is performed with YANG model-driven programmability in NX-OS?

A. configure a device with native and OpenConfig-based models

B. bootstrap a device that has a factory-default configuration

C. send CLI commands to a device and retrieve output in JSON format

D. run Linux commands natively on the device

Check answer >>

New Question 15:

What is the function of an IP address in networking?

A. represents a network connection on specific devices

B. specifies the type of traffic that is allowed to roam on a network

C. specifies the resource\’s location and the mechanism to retrieve it

D. represents the unique ID that is assigned to one host on a network

Check answer >>

Verify the answer:

Number:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answer:CACCBDAAADBBBABAD

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New Question 1:

When configuring wireless on his home router, Javik disables SSID broadcast. He leaves authentication “open” but sets the SSID to a 32-character string of random letters and numbers.

What is an accurate assessment of this scenario from a security perspective?

A. Since the SSID is required in order to connect, the 32-character string is sufficient to prevent brute-force attacks.

B. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents 802.11 beacons from being transmitted from the access point, resulting in a valid setup leveraging “security through obscurity”.

C. It is still possible for a hacker to connect to the network after sniffing the SSID from a successful wireless association.

D. Javik\’s router is still vulnerable to wireless hacking attempts because the SSID broadcast setting can be enabled using a specially crafted packet sent to the hardware address of the access point.

Correct Answer: C


New Question 2:

what are common files on a web server that can be misconfigured and provide useful Information for a hacker such as verbose error messages?

A. httpd.conf

B. administration.config

C. idq.dll

D. php.ini

Correct Answer: D

The php.ini file may be a special file for PHP. it\’s where you declare changes to your PHP settings. The server is already configured with standard settings for PHP, which your site will use by default. Unless you would like to vary one or more settings, there\’s no got to create or modify a php.ini file. If you\’d wish to make any changes to settings, please do so through the MultiPHP INI Editor.


New Question 3:

An attacker identified that a user and an access point are both compatible with WPA2 and WPA3 encryption. The attacker installed a rogue access point with only WPA2 compatibility in the vicinity and forced the victim to go through the WPA2 four-way handshake to get connected. After the connection was established, the attacker used automated tools to crack WPA2-encrypted messages. What is the attack performed in the above scenario?

A. Timing-based attack

B. Side-channel attack

C. Downgrade security attack

D. Cache-based attack

Correct Answer: B


New Question 4:

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Packet Sniffers operate on the Layer 1 of the OSI model.

B. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 2 of the OSI model.

C. Packet Sniffers operate on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model.

D. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 3 of the OSI model.

Correct Answer: B


New Question 5:

Ralph, a professional hacker, targeted Jane, who had recently bought new systems for her company. After a few days, Ralph contacted Jane while masquerading as a legitimate customer support executive, informing that her systems need to be serviced for proper functioning and that customer support will send a computer technician. Jane promptly replied positively. Ralph entered Jane\’s company using this opportunity and gathered sensitive information by scanning terminals for passwords, searching for important documents in desks, and rummaging bins. What is the type of attack technique Ralph used on jane?

A. Dumpster diving

B. Eavesdropping

C. Shoulder surfing

D. impersonation

Correct Answer: D


New Question 6:

Leverox Solutions hired Arnold, a security professional, for the threat intelligence process. Arnold collected information about specific threats against the organization. From this information, he retrieved contextual information about security events and incidents that helped him disclose potential risks and gain insight into attacker methodologies. He collected the information from sources such as humans, social media, and chat rooms as well as from events that resulted in cyberattacks. In this process, he also prepared a report that includes identified malicious activities, recommended courses of action, and warnings for emerging attacks. What is the type of threat intelligence collected by Arnold in the above scenario?

A. Strategic threat intelligence

B. Tactical threat intelligence

C. Operational threat intelligence

D. Technical threat intelligence

Correct Answer: C


New Question 7:

Which tool can be used to silently copy files from USB devices?

A. USB Grabber

B. USB Snoopy

C. USB Sniffer

D. Use Dumper

Correct Answer: D


New Question 8:

Which of the following algorithms can be used to guarantee the integrity of messages being sent, in transit, or stored?

A. symmetric algorithms

B. asymmetric algorithms

C. hashing algorithms

D. integrity algorithms

Correct Answer: C


New Question 9:

Don, a student, came across a gaming app in a third-party app store and Installed it. Subsequently, all the legitimate apps in his smartphone were replaced by deceptive applications that appeared legitimate. He also received many advertisements on his smartphone after Installing the app. What is the attack performed on Don in the above scenario?

A. SMS phishing attack

B. SIM card attack

C. Agent Smith attack

D. Clickjacking

Correct Answer: D


New Question 10:

Bob, your senior colleague, has sent you a mail regarding a deal with one of the clients. You are requested to accept the offer and you oblige. After 2 days, Bab denies that he had ever sent a mail. What do you want to “”know”” to prove yourself that it was Bob who had send a mail?

A. Non-Repudiation

B. Integrity

C. Authentication

D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: A


New Question 11:

John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization. In the attack process, the professional hacker Installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the vktims and scanned several machines on the same network to Identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation. What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?

A. Proxy scanner

B. Agent-based scanner

C. Network-based scanner

D. Cluster scanner

Correct Answer: B


New Question 12:

Gerard, a disgruntled ex-employee of Sunglass IT Solutions, targets this organization to perform sophisticated attacks and bring down its reputation in the market. To launch the attacks process, he performed DNS footprinting to gather information about ONS servers and to identify the hosts connected in the target network. He used an automated tool that can retrieve information about DNS zone data including DNS domain names, computer names. IP addresses. DNS records, and network Who is records. He further exploited this information to launch other sophisticated attacks. What is the tool employed by Gerard in the above scenario?

A. Knative

B. zANTI

C. Towelroot

D. Bluto

Correct Answer: D


New Question 13:

Morris, an attacker, wanted to check whether the target AP is in a locked state. He attempted using

different utilities to identify WPS-enabled APs in the target wireless network. Ultimately, he succeeded with

one special command-line utility.

Which of the following command-line utilities allowed Morris to discover the WPS-enabled APs?

A. wash

B. ntptrace

C. macof

D. net View

Correct Answer: A


New Question 14:

E-mail scams and mail fraud are regulated by which of the following?

A. 18 U.S.C. par. 1030 Fraud and Related activity in connection with Computers

B. 18 U.S.C. par. 1029 Fraud and Related activity in connection with Access Devices

C. 18 U.S.C. par. 1362 Communication Lines, Stations, or Systems

D. 18 U.S.C. par. 2510 Wire and Electronic Communications Interception and Interception of Oral Communication

Correct Answer: A


New Question 15:

jane, an ethical hacker. Is testing a target organization\’s web server and website to identity security loopholes. In this process, she copied the entire website and its content on a local drive to view the complete profile of the site\’s directory structure, file structure, external links, images, web pages, and so on. This information helps jane map the website\’s directories and gain valuable information. What is the attack technique employed by Jane in the above scenario?

A. website mirroring

B. Session hijacking

C. Web cache poisoning

D. Website defacement

Correct Answer: A

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Cisco 100-490 dumps: serves all 100-490 RSTECH exam candidates

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New Question 1:

What is the correct IPv6 address notation?

A. 2001:0DB8::/128

B. 2001:0DB8:0::

C. 2001:0DB8::1:1:1:1:1

D. 2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B

Correct Answer: D


New Question 2:

Which two statements about Telnet and SSH are true? (Choose two.)

A. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.

B. SSH uses the well-known TCP port 23 for its communication.

C. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.

D. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.

E. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 3:

Which address facilitates the routing of packets over an IP network?

A. physical

B. transport

C. network

D. MAC

Correct Answer: C


New Question 4:

Which two IPv4 addresses can be assigned to a host computer? (Choose two.)

A. 255.255.255.255

B. 10.1.1.20

C. 0.0.0.0

D. 192.168.10.15

E. 292.10.3.4

Correct Answer: BD


New Question 5:

Which device is a DTE device?

A. CSU/DSU

B. router

C. cable modem

D. DSL modem

Correct Answer: B


New Question 6:

Which layer of the OSI model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?

A. presentation

B. data link

C. network

D. transport

Correct Answer: B


New Question 7:

Which command shows the status of power supplies and sensor temperatures?

A. show hardware

B. show module

C. show environment

D. show diag

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/m/en_us/techdoc/dc/reference/cli/n5k/commands/show-environment.html


New Question 8:

What are two standard fiber-optic connectors? (Choose two.)

A. Lucent

B. rollover

C. subscriber

D. multidimension

E. crossover

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 9:

Which two pairs of LAN Ethernet devices use an RJ-45 straight-through cable? (Choose two.)

A. switch-to-switch

B. switch-to-router

C. switch-to-hub

D. router-to-router

E. switch-to-server

Correct Answer: BE


New Question 10:

Which two features are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

A. consists of a single strand of glass fiber

B. has higher attenuation that multimode fiber

C. carries a higher bandwidth that multimode fiber

D. costs less than multimode fiber

E. operates over less distance than multimode fiber

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 11:

Which type of transceiver module is used for 40 Gigabit Ethernet connectivity?

A. SFP+

B. GBIC

C. QSFP+

D. XFP

Correct Answer: C


New Question 12:

What is the line speed of a DS0 in North America?

A. 16 kbps

B. 32 kbps

C. 64 kbps

D. 128 kbps

Correct Answer: C


New Question 13:

Which two statements about a SmartJack are true? (Choose two.)

A. It provides signal conversion.

B. It acts as a concentration point for dial-in and dial-out connections.

C. It operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.

D. It provides channel testing.

E. It regenerates the signal to compensate for signal degradation from line transmission.

Correct Answer: AE


New Question 14:

The pins on an RJ-45 cable plug are numbered from 1 through 8. When the metal pins of the plug are facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets of pins are looped on an RJ-45 56K loopback plug? (Choose two.)

A. pins 2 and 7

B. pins 2 and 8

C. pins 2 and 5

D. pins 1 and 7

E. pins 1 and 4

Correct Answer: CE


New Question 15:

Which type of memory is used to permanently store Cisco IOS Software?

A. NVRAM

B. flash

C. SRAM

D. DRAM

Correct Answer: A

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Prepare for the 300-720 SESA exam: Use the newly updated 300-720 SESA dumps

Lead4pass has updated 300-720 SESA dumps with 94 latest exam questions and answers to help you prepare for the 300-720 SESA exam and successfully pass one of the CCNP Security Concentration exams (300-720 SESA exam).

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Try some of the free 300-720 dumps exam questions online:

New Question 1:

Which SMTP extension does Cisco ESA support for email security?

A. ETRN

B. UTF8SMTP

C. PIPELINING

D. STARTTLS

View Answer


New Question 2:

Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting into the Cisco ESA?

A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering

B. Connection Reputation Filtering

C. Talos Reputation Filtering

D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering

View Answer


New Question 3:

Which benefit does enabling external spam quarantine on Cisco SMA provide?

A. ability to back up spam quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console

B. access to the spam quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete

C. ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate

D. ability to consolidate spam quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESA to one central console

View Answer


New Question 4:

When email authentication is configured on Cisco ESA, which two key types should be selected on the signing profile? (Choose two.)

A. DKIM

B. Public Keys

C. Domain Keys

D. Symmetric Keys

E. Private Keys

View Answer


New Question 5:

What are two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject

B. workqueue

C. action

D. delivery

E. quarantine

View Answer


New Question 6:

Which two action types are performed by Cisco ESA message filters? (Choose two.)

A. non-final actions

B. filter actions

C. discard actions

D. final actions

E. quarantine actions

View Answer


New Question 7:

Which setting affects the aggressiveness of spam detection?

A. protection level

B. spam threshold

C. spam timeout

D. maximum depth of recursion scan

View Answer


New Question 8:

What is the order of virus scanning when multilayer antivirus scanning is configured?

A. The default engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

B. The Sophos engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

C. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the default engine scans for viruses second.

D. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the Sophos engine scans for viruses second.

View Answer

If you configure multi-layer anti-virus scanning, the Cisco appliance performs virus scanning with the McAfee engine first and the Sophos engine second. It scans messages using both engines, unless the McAfee engine detects a virus. If the McAfee engine detects a virus, the Cisco appliance performs the anti-virus actions (repairing, quarantining, etc.) defined for the mail policy.


New Question 9:

What are two prerequisites for implementing undesirable URL protection in Cisco ESA? (Choose two.)

A. Enable outbreak filters.

B. Enable email relay.

C. Enable antispam scanning.

D. Enable port bouncing.

E. Enable antivirus scanning.

View Answer


New Question 10:

Which suboption must be selected when LDAP is configured for Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication?

A. Designate as the active query

B. Update Frequency

C. Server Priority

D. Entity ID

View Answer


New Question 11:

What is the maximum message size that can be configured for encryption on the Cisco ESA?

A. 20 MB

B. 25 MB

C. 15 MB

D. 30 MB

View Answer


New Question 12:

An analyst creates a new content dictionary to use with Forged Email Detection. Which entry will be added into the dictionary?

A. mycompany.com

B. Alpha Beta

C. ^Alpha\ Beta$

D. [email protected]

View Answer


New Question 13:

Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safelist?

A. message filter

B. antivirus scanning

C. outbreak filter

D. antispam scanning

View Answer


New Question 14:

Which two query types are available when an LDAP profile is configured? (Choose two.)

A. proxy consolidation

B. user

C. recursive

D. group

E. routing

View Answer


New Question 15:

Which action is a valid fallback when a client certificate is unavailable during SMTP authentication on Cisco ESA?

A. LDAP Query

B. SMTP AUTH

C. SMTP TLS

D. LDAP BIND

View Answer

Verify the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:DADACBDADBCACAAAADEB

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