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latest updated Cisco 300-815 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
What is the first preference condition matched in a SIP-enabled incoming dial peer?
A. incoming uri
B. target carrier-id
C. answer-address
D. incoming called-number
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip-voip/211306-In-DepthExplanation-of-Cisco-IOS-and-IO.html#anc8

 

QUESTION 2
What is the relationship between partition, time schedule, and the time period in Time-of-Day routing in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager?
A. A partition can have multiple time schedules assigned. A time schedule contains one or more time periods.
B. A partition can have a one-time schedule assigned. A time schedule contains one or more time periods.
C. A partition can have multiple time schedules assigned. A time schedule contains only one time period.
D. A partition can have a one-time schedule assigned. A time schedule contains only one time period.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
When locations-based Call Admission Control denies the call, which two masks can AAR apply when routing the call
through the PSTN? (Choose two.)
A. AAR destination mask
B. called party transform mask
C. external phone number mask
D. +E.164 alternate number mask
E. enterprise alternate number mask
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab10/collab10/dialplan.html

QUESTION 4
A user in location X dials an extension at location Y. The call travels through a QoS-enabled WAN network, but the user
experiences choppy or clipped audio. What is the cause of this issue?
A. missing Call Admission Control
B. codec mismatch
C. ptime mismatch
D. phone class of service issue
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
The administrator of ABC company is troubleshooting a one-way audio issue for a call that uses H.323 protocol (slowstart mode). The administrator requests that you provide the IP and port information of the Real-Time Transport Protocol
traffic that had the one-way audio call.
You gather the H.225 and H.245 messages for one of the one-way audio calls. Where can you find the RTP IP and port
information for both sides? (Note: This call flow has not invoked any media resources like MTP or transcoders).
A. H.245 Terminal Capability Set
B. H.245 Open Logical Channel
C. H.225 Connect
D. H.245 Open Logical Channel Ack
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://ccievoicehopeful.blogspot.com/2012/09/h323-notes.html

 

QUESTION 6
You see the voice register pool 1 command in your Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express configuration.
Which configuration is occurring in this section?
A. configuration for a single SIP phone
B. configuration items common for all SIP phones
C. configuration for a pool of SIP phones (similar to devise pool on Cisco Unified Communications Manager)
D. configuration for SIP registrar service
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cusrst/admin/sccp_sip_srst/configuration/guide/SCCP_and_SIP_SRST_Admin_Guide/srst_setting_up_using_sip.html

 

QUESTION 7[2021.2] lead4pass 300-815 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Users report that when they dial Cisco Unity Connection from an external network, they cannot
enter any digits. Assuming only in-band DTMF is supported, what is the reason for this malfunction?
A. The negotiated RTP port is outside of the range described by RFC, so inband DTMFs do not work.
B. There is SIP Delayed Offer. DTMF is supported only in Early Offer.
C. The rtpmap:0 value for the negotiated codec is marking DTMF as inactive.
D. No DTMF is negotiated.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8[2021.2] lead4pass 300-815 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. A user reports that when they call a specific phone number, no one answers the call, but when they
call from a mobile phone, the call is answered. The engineer troubleshooting the issue is expecting the far-end gateway
to cut through audio on the 183 Session Progress SIP message. Which SIP Profile configuration element is necessary
for the Cisco Unified Communications Manager to send acknowledgement of provisional responses?
A. Allow Passthrough of Configured Line Device Caller Information must be enabled.
B. Accept Audio Codec Preferences in Received Offer must be set to On.
C. On the SIP Profile, the configuration parameter SIP Rel1XX Options must be set to Send PRACK for all 1xx
Messages.
D. Early Offer for G Clear Calls must be enabled.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9[2021.2] lead4pass 300-815 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. Users report that outbound PSTN calls from phones registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager are not completing. The local service provider in North America has a requirement to receive calls in 10-digit
format. The Cisco Unified CM sends the calls to the Cisco Unified Border Element router in a globalized E.164 format.
There is an outbound dial-peer on Cisco Unified Border Element configured to send the calls to the provider. The dial-peer has a voice translation profile applied in the correct direction but an incorrect voice translation rule applied, which is
shown in the exhibit. Which rule modified DNIS in the format that the provider is expecting?
A. rule 1 /^/+\([^1].*\)/ /011\1/
B. rule 1/^\+1\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\1/
C. rule 1 /^\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\1/
D. rule 1 /^\+1\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\0/
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
An administrator is troubleshooting call failures on an H.323 gateway via the CLI. To see signaling for media and call
setup, which debug must the Administrator turn on?
A. debug H.323 messages
B. debug H.225 asn1
C. debug H.246 asn 1
D. debug H.225 media
E. debug H.323 asn 1
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
When configuring hunt groups, where do you add the individual directory numbers that will be part of the group?
A. route group
B. line group
C. hunt list
D. hunt pilot
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/12_0_1/systemConfig/cucm_b_systemconfiguration-guide-1201/cucm_b_system-configuration-guide-1201_chapter_010101.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are correct with respect to the Client Matter Code setting in the route pattern configuration?
(Choose two.)
A. The Client Matter Code feature does not support overlap sending because the Cisco Unified CM cannot determine
when to prompt the user for the code.
B. If you check the Allow Overlap Sending check box, the Require Client Matter Code check box becomes disabled.
C. If you check the Allow Overlap Sending check box, you can also check the Require Client Matter Code check box.
D. The Client Matter Code feature does support overlap sending because the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
can determine when to prompt the user for the code.
E. The Client Matter Code has the option to configure Authorization Level such as in the Forced Authorization Code.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmfeat/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F
_00_cucm-features-services-guide-100/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F_00_cucm-features-servicesguide100_chapter_010000.pdf

 

QUESTION 13
Which section under the Real-Time Monitoring Tool allows for reviewing the call flow and signaling for a SIP call in real-time?
A. Analysis Manager > Inventory > Trace File Repositories
B. System > Tools > Trace and Log Central
C. Voice/Video > Session Trace Log View > Real Time Data
D. Voice/Video > Session Trace Log View > Open From Local Disk
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-managercallmanager/213583-procedure-to-analyse-call-flow-of-sip-ca.html

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Latest updates Cisco 300-420 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

What is the advantage of designing an out-of-band network management solution?
A. In the event of a production network outage, network devices can still be managed.
B. There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
C. In the event of a production network outage, it can be used as a backup network path.
D. It is less expensive than an in-band management solution

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which design consideration should be observed when EIGRP is configured on Data Center switches?
A. Perform manual summarization on all Layer 3 interfaces to minimize the size of the routing table.
B. Prevent unnecessary EIGRP neighborships from forming across switch virtual interfaces.
C. Lower EIGRP hello and hold timers to their minimum settings to ensure rapid route reconvergence.
D. Configure multiple EIGRP autonomous systems to segment Data Center services and applications.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

A customer is discussing QoS requirements with a network consultant. The customer has specified that end-to-end path
verification is a requirement. Which QoS solution meets this requirement?
A. IntServ model with RSVP to support the traffic flows
B. DiffServ model with PHB to support the traffic flows
C. marking traffic at the access layer with DSCP to support the traffic flows
D. marking traffic at the access layer with CoS to support the traffic flows

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

How do endpoints inside an SD-Access network reach resources outside the fabric?
A. a VRF fusion router is used to map resources in one VN to another VN
B. Fabric borders use VRFs to map VNs to VRFs
C. SD-Access transit links are used to transport encapsulated traffic from one fabric to another
D. A fabric edge is used to de-encapsulate VXLAN traffic to normal IP traffic then transported over the outside network

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

Which feature is required for a graceful restart to recover from a processor failure?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
B. Virtual Switch System
C. Stateful Switchover
D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

A branch office has a primary L3VPN MPLS connection back to the main office and an IPSEC VPN tunnel that serves
as a backup. Which design ensures that data is sent over the backup connection only if the primary MPLS circuit is
down?
A. Use EIGRP to establish a neighbor relationship with the main office via L3VPN MPLS and the IPSEC VPN tunnel.
B. Use BGP with the multipath feature enabled to force traffic via the primary path when available.
C. Use static routes tied to an IP SLA to prefer the primary path while a floating static route points to the backup
connection.
D. Use OSPF with a passive-interface command on the backup connection.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay?
A. underlay, MPLS, and overlay
B. primary, backup, and load-balanced
C. prefix, TLOC, and service
D. Internet, MPLS, and backup

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

examscode 300-420 q8

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must optimize the traffic flow of the network. Which change provides a more efficient
design between the access and the distribution layer?
A. Add a link between access switch A and access switch B
B. Reconfigure the distribution switch A to become the HSRP Active
C. Change the link between distribution switch A and distribution switch B to be a routed link
D. Create an EtherChannel link between distribution switch A and distribution switch B

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

An engineer is designing an enterprise campus network. The LAN infrastructure consists of switches from multiple
vendors, and Spanning Tree must be used as a Layer 2 loop prevention mechanism. All configured VLANs must be
grouped in two SIP instances. Which standards-based Spanning Tree technology supports this design solution?
A. MSTP
B. RSTP
C. Rapid PVST
D. STP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which NETCONF operation creates filtering that is specific to the session notifications?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

What is the benefit of using VRRPv3 as compared to VRRPv2?
A. VRRPv3 supports IPv4 and IPv6
B. VRRPv3 supports authentication
C. VRRPv3 supports preemption
D. VRRPv3 supports stateful switchover

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Which OSPF area blocks LSA Type 3, 4 and 5, but allows a default summary route?
A. normal
B. stub
C. NSSA
D. totally stubby

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

What are two valid scaling techniques when an EIGRP network is designed that consists of more than 1000 routers?
(Choose two.)
A. Use structured hierarchical topology with route summarization
B. Used sub-second timers
C. Use the distribute-list command to filter routes
D. Modify delay parameters on the links
E. Implement multiple EIGRP autonomous systems

Correct Answer: AE

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Latest updates Cisco 500-710 exam
practice questions

QUESTION 1

An engineer wants to add a domain to a numeric E.164 alias dialed by an H.323 endpoint. Which opinion is the Cisco

recommended method to add this domain in the Expressway configurations? 

A. transforms 

B. user policy 

C. service preference 

D. call policy 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 2

Which protocol is used to communicate codec capabilities and Real-Time Transport Protocol ports? 

A. Real-Time Transport Control Protocol 

B. Session Description Protocol 

C. H.460 

D. Assent 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 3

Which description of the steps one must take to build a TMS phone book is true? 

A. Connect TMS to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager contact list files, create a phone book, connect the files

to a phone book, and set on systems. 

B. Export a .csv file to the TMS database from AD or Outlook, create a phone book, connect the file to a phone book,

and set on systems. 

C. Create a contact list, create a phone book, connect the contact list to the phone book, and set on systems. 

D. Create a source, create a phone book, connect the source to the phone book, and set on systems. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 4

Which two statements about the assignment of endpoints to a subzone are true? (Choose two.) 

A. A registration restriction rule must be configured that matches the endpoint\\’s alias or IP subnet. 

B. Endpoints making a traversal call must be registered to the traversal subzone. 

C. By default, all endpoints are registered to the default subzone. 

D. By default, all endpoints are registered to the neighbor subzone. 

E. A subzone membership rule must be configured that matches the endpoint\\’s alias or IP subnet. 

Correct Answer: CE 

 

QUESTION 5

Which statement about integrating a Cisco Expressway with a resilient and scalable Cisco Meeting Server deployment

is true? 

A. Neither Expressway cores nor Expressway edges can be integrated with Cisco Meeting Server. 

B. Only Cisco Expressway cores can be integrated with Cisco Meeting Server. 

C. Only Expressway edges can be integrated with Cisco Meeting Server. 

D. Expressway cores and Expressway edges can be integrated with Cisco Meeting Server. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 6

Which group of items must be configured when adding a Cisco Meeting Server toTMS before the server can be used in

scheduled conferences? 

A. DNS address, numeric ID base, numeric ID quantity 

B. domain, numeric ID base, conference ID range 

C. MACaddress, numeric ID base, numeric ID quantity 

D. domain, numeric ID base, numeric ID quantity 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 7

Which Hybrid Services connector provides integration between on-premises calendaring application and Cisco

Collaboration Cloud? 

A. Calendar Connector 

B. Call Control 

C. Management 

D. Directory Connector 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 8

An administrator notices that when alias information is changed manually on an endpoint that is registered to an

Expressway, the changes are successful, but then revert back to their original state the following day. Which cause is

the most likely? 

A. The changes are not being saved properly on the endpoint. 

B. A template is being persistently pushed to the endpoint from TMS. 

C. A template is being pushed persistently to the endpoint from the Expressway. 

D. The alias information of the endpoint is duplicated on another endpoint. 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 9

Which statement about Microsoft Skype for Business interoperability with Cisco Meeting Server is true? 

A. Calls cannot be place between S4B and Cisco Meeting App users 

B. Local directories can always be used between S4B users and CMA 

C. Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting App users 

D. Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting Server Spaces 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 10

Where in the TMS application does an engineer add individual endpoints or infrastructure to the TMS database? 

A. System > Navigator 

B. System > System Overview 

C. System > Provisioning 

D. System > Manage Dial Plan 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 11

Which type of customization options are available on the Cisco Meeting Server? 

A. customizing protocols used 

B. branding spaces 

C. customizing aliases used 

D. branding the WebRTC clients 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 12

An engineer must match any incoming call to the Expressway that is searching for an E.164 address of only 6 digits and

append the domain cisco.com to the end. Which pattern match and replace string using regular expressions accomplish

this task? (Choose two.) 

A. pattern match: ({6}*) 

B. pattern match ({6}\d) 

C. pattern match ({5}\d) 

D. replace string: \[email protected] 

E. replace string: \[email protected] 

F. replace string: \[email protected] 

Correct Answer: BE 

 

QUESTION 13

Which two elements of authentication credentials are stored in the local database of the Expressway? (Choose two.) 

A. username 

B. user authority 

C. CA authority 

D. crypto hash key 

E. password 

Correct Answer: AE

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Latest Cisco 500-301 exam practice

QUESTION 1
Which feature can be customized in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room view?
A. Change your PIN.
B. Automatically lock your room.
C. Configure alternate hosts.
D. Change the drink image.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is a Spark Phone?
A. UC VoIP and video phones that associate with an individual user
B. UC VoIP phones that associate with an individual user
C. UC VoIP phones that associate with a location
D. UC VoIP and video phones that associate with an individual user or location
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which alias do you dial from the video endpoint to start a Cisco WebEx Personal Room meeting?
A. @
B. /join/
C. @WebEx.com
D. /meet/
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which path do you take to configure the Automatic Lock feature in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room?
A. My WebEx > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
B. Preferences > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
C. My WebEx > Preferences > Automatic Lock
D. My WebEx > Preferences > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
Correct Answer: B
https://collaborationhelp.cisco.com/article/en-us/8zi8tq

QUESTION 5
Which feature can be customized in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room view?
A. Change your PIN.
B. Change the desk image.
C. Automatically lock your room.
D. Configure alternate hosts.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which path do you take to configure the Automatic Lock feature in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room?
A. My WebEx > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
B. My WebEx > Preferences > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
C. My WebEx > Preferences > Automatic Lock
D. Preferences > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which option do you select in the WebEx toolbar in Outlook to invite people to your Personal Room?
A. Select Schedule Personal Room Meeting.
B. Select Schedule WebEx Meeting
C. Select Invite and Remind
D. Select Meet Now
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which result occurs when you leave your Cisco WebEx Personal Room meeting?
A. All other participant are still connected
B. All other participants are disconnected, unless another participant is made the host.
C. All other participants are still connected, even if another participant is made the host.
D. All other participants are disconnected, even if another participant is made the host
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
\Which formats can a Skype for Business user dial to connect to a meeting in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center?
A. @lync.webex.com
B. [email protected]
C. [email protected] lync.webex.com
D. @. webex.com
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What happens to participants who try to access your Cisco WebEx Personal Room when the Lock option is enabled?
A. Those participants are disconnected.
B. Those participants hear a busy message and then are disconnected.
C. Those participants are presented with busy message and the option to join the meeting or wait until you are free.
D. Those participants are redirected to a virtual waiting room.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is a Spark Room?
A. video endpoints that are associated with a user or location
B. video endpoints that are associated with a location
C. video endpoints that are associated with a user
D. UC VoIP and video phones that are associated with a user
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which formats can a Skype for Business user dial to connect to a meeting in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center?
A. [email protected]
B. [email protected]
C. @.webex.com
D. @lync.webex.com
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which support tools option is available in the Cisco WebEx Support Center?
A. Monitor all sessions and agent activity at the queue and support-representative levels.
B. Set up queues with rules-based routing, by availability or skill set.
C. Allow recording of support sessions manually or automatically.
D. Allow technicians to reboot and reconnect.
Correct Answer: C

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cisco 400-101 exam practice

Latest updates Cisco 400-101 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

Which two protocols are used by the management plane?(choose two) 

A. ISSU 

B. BGP 

C. Telnet 

D. OSPF 

E. FTP 

F. DTP 

Correct Answer: CE 

 

QUESTION 2

Which two statements about IPv6 6to4 tunnels are true? (Choose two) 

A. They are point-to-multipoint tunnels 

B. Sites use addresses from the 2002::/16 prefix 

C. They rely on GRE encapsulation 

D. They are point-to-point tunnels 

E. Sites use addresses from the link-local scope 

Correct Answer: AB 

 

QUESTION 3

What is the source MAC address of a BPDU frame that is sent out of port? 

A. the same as the MAC address in the bridge ID 

B. the lowest MAC address on the switch 

C. the highest MAC address on the switch 

D. the MAC address of the individual port that is sending the BPDU 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 4

One of your clients which is in the manufacture area, is after a solution in order to manage all his fog nodes. Which

management tools best suits his needs? 

A. Cisco Connected Grid Network Management System 

B. Cisco Prime Infrastructure 

C. Cisco Network Control System 

D. Cisco Fog Director 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 5

Which two conditions can cause unicast flooding? (Choose two) 

A. symmetryc routing 

B. recurring TCNs 

C. rultiple MAC address in the Layer 2 forwarding table 

D. RIB table overflow 

E. forwarding table overflow 

Correct Answer: BE 

 

QUESTION 6

Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.) 

A. It supports unicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6. 

B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only. 

C. It supports only one address family per instance. 

D. It supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention. 

E. It supports multicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6. 

F. It supports multicast address families for IPv6 only. 

Correct Answer: AC 

 

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which tag will be applied to 172.16.50.0/24 route?lead4pass 400-101 exam question q7

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the OSPF network type on the left to the correct category of timers on the right.lead4pass 400-101 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-101 exam question q8-1

 

QUESTION 9
Unicast message to acknowledge.
Select and Place:lead4pass 400-101 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-101 exam question q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
Which values does EIGRP use to determine the metric for a summary address?
A. A default fixed value
B. The average of the component metrics
C. The lowest metric among the component routes
D. The highest metric among the component routes
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
In an MPLS-VPN environment, what is the effect of configuring an identical set of route targets for a particular VRF but
then configuring nonidentical RD accross multiple PE devices?
A. The routes are rejected by remote PE because they have a different RD than its routes.
B. The routes propagate to the remore PE, but the PE never installs them in its forwarding table.
C. The routes are correctly managed by the control plane, but there are instances where routes take up twice as much
memory.
D. The routes are not sent to any remote PE with a differnt RD.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Which two events occur when a packet is decapsulated in a GRE tunnel? (Choose two.)
A. The destination IPv4 address in the IPv4 payload is used to forward the packet.
B. The TTL of the payload packet is decremented.
C. The source IPv4 address in the IPv4 payload is used to forward the packet
D. The TTL of the payload packet is incremented
E. The version field in the GRE header is incremented
F. The GRE keepalive mechanism is reset
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 13
Which two actions can you take to prevent routes from becoming stuck in active? (Choose two)
A. Manually increase the EIGRP metrics on interfaces connected to successors.
B. Use port channeling to aggregate multiple EIGRP interfaces
C. Increase the time a router waits before it declares routes stuck in active
D. Increase the EIGRP K values on low-bandwidth interfaces
E. Increase the Hello timers on all EIGRP interfaces
F. Design the network so that it uses the lowest possible number of queries
Correct Answer: CF

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Easy to learn, you’ll pass the Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-150 exam! Free 200-150 dumps

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Test your Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-150 exam level

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-150 exam question q1

Cisco UCS Manager generates a Call Home fault report Which action do you take to resolve the issue?
A. Verify that air flows through the chassis correctly
B. Remove the equipment that generates excessive heat near the top of the rack
C. Ensure that power cables are connected to the fan assemblies of the UCS
D. Adjust the chassis temperature threshold to a higher setting
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2lead4pass 200-150 exam question q2

Refer to the exhibit. Which command allows the Cisco Nexus 5000 switch to continue to start up?
A. switch(boot)# load n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
B. switch(boot)# configure terminalswitch(boot-config)# admin-password Cisco123
C. switch(boot)# load n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
D. switch(boot)# load system-latest
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Drag and drop the CLI configuration command on the left to the correct order on the right to configure a Layer 3
interface. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-150 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-150 exam question q3-1

 

QUESTION 4
Drag and drop the Cisco NX-OS user role on the left to the correct default privilege on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-150 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-150 exam question q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
What is the principle function of the data center core layer?
A. high-speed packet switching
B. access control
C. firewalling and intrusion prevention
D. QoS marking
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Which types of cable do you use to connect two Cisco switches that are 50 km apart?
A. UTP
B. STP
C. MMF
D. SMF
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 8
Which process does a Cisco router perform immediately upon powering up?
A. POST
B. BIOS
C. booting from NVRAM
D. booting from ROM
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
How many bits are used for a subnet ID in an IPv6 address?
A. 48
B. 16
C. 64
D. 128
E. 10
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Ethernet 1/1 is assigned IP address 10.1.1.1 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0. Which configuration is used to configure
EIGRP on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0no shutdown!router eigrp 1network 10.1.1.0
0.0.0.255
B. feature eigrp!router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip router eigrp 1no shutdown
C. router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip router eigrp 1no shutdown
D. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24no shutdown!router eigrp 1network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What are two physical subcomponents of the Cisco UCS C-Series server? (Choose two.)
A. memory extension node
B. hard drive
C. fabric interconnect
D. power supply
E. compute node
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 12
Which command set creates an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny only FTP traffic from any source to
destination host 10.10.10.110?
A. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)#
permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp N5K-A(config)# access-list 101deny Ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)#
permit Ip any any
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which option includes the two devices that can be connected when a Cisco Fabric Extender Transceiver is used?
A. Server to Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch
B. Server to Cisco Nexus 5010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender to Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch
D. Server to Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco CCDP 300-101 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
A network engineer executes the show ip cache flow command. Wich two types of information are displayed in the report that is generated? (Choose 2)
A. top talkers
B. flow export statistics
C. flow sample for specific protocols
D. MLS flow traffic
E. IP packet distribution
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
At which layer does Cisco Express Forwarding use adjacency tables to populate addressing information?
A. Layer4
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 1
D. Layer 3
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which traffic does the following configuration allow? ipv6 access-list cisco permit ipv6 host 2001:DB8:0:4::32 any eq ssh line vty 0 4 ipv6 access-class cisco in
A. all traffic to vty 0 4 from source 2001:DB8:0:4::32
B. only ssh traffic to vty 0 4 from source all
C. only ssh traffic to vty 0 4 from source 2001:DB8:0:4::32
D. all traffic to vty 0 4 from source all
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Will redistributed RIP routes from OSPF Area 2 be allowed in Area 1?
300-101 dumps
A. Because Area 1 is an NSSA, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed.
B. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 5 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
C. Because NSSA will discard type 7 LSAs, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed in Area 1.
D. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 7 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
E. RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 only if they are first redistributed into EIGRP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
If R1 is configured for 6to4 tunneling, what will the prefix of its IPv6 network be? 300-101 dumps
A. 1723:1100:1::/48
B. FFFF:AC1F:6401::/16
C. AC1F:6401::/32
D. 2002:AC1F:6401::/48
E. 3FFE:AC1F:6401::/32
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
A new TAC engineer came to you for advice. A GRE over IPsec tunnel was configured, but the tunnel is not coming up.
What did the TAC engineer configure incorrectly?
A. The crypto isakmp configuration is not correct.
B. The crypto map configuration is not correct.
C. The network 172.16.1.0 is not included in the OSPF process.
D. The interface tunnel configuration is not correct.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two methods of deployment can you use when implementing NAT64? (Choose two.)
A. stateless
B. stateful
C. manual
D. automatic
E. static
F. functional
G. dynamic
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which statement about dual stack is true?
A. Dual stack translates IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
B. Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel.
C. Dual stack translates IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses.
D. Dual stack changes the IP addresses on hosts from IPv4 to IPv6 automatically.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The following configuration is applied to a router at a branch site: ipv6 dhcp pool dhcp-pool dns-server 2001:DB8:1:B::1 dns-server 2001:DB8:3:307C::42 domain-name example.com ! If IPv6 is configured with default settings on all interfaces on the router, which two dynamic IPv6 addressing mechanisms could you use on end hosts to provide end-to-end connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. EUI-64
B. SLAAC
C. DHCPv6
D. BOOTP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about EVN are true? 300-101 dumps (Choose two)
A. Virtual network tags are assigned per-VRF.
B. it is supported only on access ports.
C. Virtual network tags are assigned globally.
D. Routing metrics can be manipulated only from directly within the routing-context configuration.
E. The VLAN ID in the 802.1q frame carries the virtual network tag.
F. The VLAN ID is the ISL frame carries the virtual network tag.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
In which scenario can asymmetric routing occur?
A. active/active firewall setup
B. single path in and out of the network.
C. active/standby firewall setup
D. redundant routers running VRRP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which two options are requirements for EIGRP authentication? (Choose two)
A. A crypto map must be configured.
B. The Authentication key must be configured under the interface running EIGRP.
C. The authentication key must be configured within the EIGRP routing configuration.
D. The authentication key IDs must match between two neighbors.
E. A separate key chain must be configured.
F. AN IPsec profile must be configured.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a GRE Tunnel characteristic?
A. GRE impose more CPU overhead than IPSec on VPN gateways
B. GRE tunnels can run through IPsec tunnels.
C. GRE Tunnel doesn\’t have support for IPv6
D. GRE consists of two sub-protocols: Encapsulated Security Payload (ESP) and Authentication Header (AH).
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of NAT-PT between the IPv4 and IPv6 networks shown?
A. The router will determine the IPv4 destination address.
B. The source IPv6 host can use DNS to determine the IPv6-to-IPv4 address mapping.
C. The host is statically configured with the IPv6-to-IPv4 address mapping.
D. ICMP can be used to determine the IPv6-to-IPv4 address mapping.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Which interoperability technique implemented on the router would allow Host-1 to communicate with Host-2? 300-101 dumps
A. Dual Stack
B. NAT-PT
C. 6to4 tunnel
D. GRE tunnel
E. ISATAP tunnel
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A network engineer executes the andquot;ipv6 flowsetandquot; command. What is the result?
A. Flow-label marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
B. Flow-set marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
C. IPv6 PMTU is enabled on the router.
D. IPv6 flow control is enabled on the router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two statements are true about using IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously on a network segment? (Choose two.)
A. Hosts can be configured to receive both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses via DHCP.
B. Host configuration options for IPv4 can be either statically assigned or assigned via DHCP.Host configuration options for IPv6 can be statically assigned only.
C. IPv6 allows a host to create its own IPv6 address that will allow it to communicate to other devices on a network configured via DHCP. IPv4 does not provide a similar capability for hosts.
D. IPv4 and IPv6 addresses can be simultaneously assigned to a host but not to a router interface.
E. IPv6 provides for more host IP addresses but IPv4 provides for more network addresses.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
A network engineer enables OSPF on a Frame Relay WAN connecton to various remote sties, but no OSPF adiacencies come up. Which two actions are possible solutions for this issue? (Choose Two)
A. Change the network type to point-to-murpont under WAN interface
B. Enable virtual Iinks
C. Change the networktype to nonbroadcast mutpoint access
D. Configure the neighbor command under OSPF process for each remote site
E. Ensure that the OSPF process number matches among all remote sites
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 20
The OSPF database of a router shows LSA types 1, 2, 3, and 7 only. Which type of area is this router connected to?
A. stub area
B. totally stubby area
C. backbone area
D. not-so-stubby area
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which of the below mentioned conditions form a neighbor relationship in EIGRP? (Choose three)
A. Hello or ACK received
B. AS number match
C. Hello timer match
D. Identical metric (k values)
E. Dead Timer Match
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Given the partial configuration in the exhibit, which IPv6 statement is true?
A. The configuration is an example of an encrypted IPv6 VPN tunnel.
B. The configuration is an example of a one to one IPv6 tunnel.
C. The configuration is an example of a 6to4 tunnel.
D. The configuration is an example of a 4to6 tunnel.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Which two statements are correct regarding the routes to be redistributed into OSPF? 300-101 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The network 192.168.1.0 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 100.
B. The network 192.168.1.0 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
C. All networks except 10.0.0.0/8 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
D. The network 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
E. The network 10.0.10.0/24 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
Which Cisco VPN technology uses AAA to implement group policies and authorization and is also used for the XAUTH authentication method?
A. DMVPN
B. Cisco Easy VPN
C. GETVPN
D. GREVPN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
A. simplified Layer 3 network virtualization
B. improved shared services support
C. enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability
D. reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking
E. increased network performance and throughput
F. decreased BGP neighbor configurations
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 26
Which command must be globally enabled on a Cisco router to support IPv6?
A. ip routing ipv6
B. ipv6 unicast-routing
C. ipv6 routing
D. ip classless
E. ipv6 cef
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What does the following access list, which is applied on the external interface FastEthernet 1/0 of the perimeter router, accomplish? router(config)#access-list 101 deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any router (config)#interface fastEthernet 1/0 router (config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
A. It prevents incoming traffic from IP address ranges 10.0.0.0-10.0.0.255, 172.16.0.0- 172.31.255.255, 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255 and logs any intrusion attempts.
B. It prevents the internal network from being used in spoofed denial of service attacks and logs any exit to the Internet.
C. It filters incoming traffic from private addresses in order to prevent spoofing and logs any intrusion attempts.
D. It prevents private internal addresses to be accessed directly from outside.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which statement describes what this command accomplishes when inside and outside interfaces are correctly identified for NAT?
ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.1.50 80 209.165.201.1 8080 extendable
A. It allows host 192.168.1.50 to access external websites using TCP port 8080.
B. It allows external clients coming from public IP 209.165.201.1 to connect to a web server at 192.168.1.50.
C. It allows external clients to connect to a web server hosted on 192.168.1.50.
D. It represents an incorrect NAT configuration because it uses standard TCP ports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
Will redistributed RIP routes from OSPF Area 2 be allowed in Area 1?
300-101 dumps
A. Because Area 1 is an NSSA, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed.
B. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 5 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
C. Because NSSA will discard type 7 LSAs, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed in Area 1.
D. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 7 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
E. RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 only if they are first redistributed into EIGRP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which command should be added to RTB under router bgp 100 to allow only the external OSPF routes to be redistributed to RTC? 300-101 dumps
300-101 dumps
A. redistribute ospf 1
B. redistribute ospf 1 match external 1
C. redistribute ospf 1 match external 2
D. redistribute ospf 1 match external 1 external 2
Correct Answer: D

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30 Real Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
What is the effect of the given command sequence?
A. It configures IKE Phase 1.
B. It configures a site-to-site VPN tunnel.
C. It configures a crypto policy with a key size of 14400.
D. It configures IPSec Phase 2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What hash type does Cisco use to validate the integrity of downloaded images?
A. Sha1
B. Sha2
C. Md5
D. Md1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection? 210-260 dumps
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
With which NTP server has the router synchronized?
A. 192.168.10.7
B. 108.61.73.243
C. 209.114.111.1
D. 132.163.4.103
E. 204.2.134.164
F. 241.199.164.101
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 7
E. 10
F. 15
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of a honeypot IPS?
A. To create customized policies
B. To detect unknown attacks
C. To normalize streams
D. To collect information about attacks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? 210-260 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 12
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which statement about the device time is true?
A. The time is authoritative, but the NTP process has lost contact with its servers.
B. The time is authoritative because the clock is in sync.
C. The clock is out of sync.
D. NTP is configured incorrectly.
E. The time is not authoritative.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. What action can you take to block users from accidentally visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware. 210-260 dumps
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router’s local URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router’s local URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall’s local URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter router.
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 22
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations? (Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 23
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which syslog severity level is level number 7?
A. Warning
B. Informational
C. Notification
D. Debugging
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 26
Which statement about personal firewalls is true?
A. They can protect a system by denying probing requests.
B. They are resilient against kernel attacks.
C. They can protect email messages and private documents in a similar way to a VPN.
D. They can protect the network against attacks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? 210-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
When an administrator initiates a device wipe command from the ISE, what is the immediate effect?
A. It requests the administrator to choose between erasing all device data or only managed corporate data.
B. It requests the administrator to enter the device PIN or password before proceeding with the operation.
C. It notifies the device user and proceeds with the erase operation.
D. It immediately erases all data on the device.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to block certain addresses utilizing Security Intelligence IP Address Reputation. A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?
A. Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic.
B. Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic.
C. Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic.
D. Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic.
E. Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions
Exam Code: 300-206
Total Questions: 254 Q&As
300-206 dumps
QUESTION 1
A network engineer is asked to configure NetFlow to sample one of every 100 packets on a router’s fa0/0 interface. Which configuration enables sampling, assuming that NetFlow is already configured and running on the router’s fa0/0 interface?
A. flow-sampler-map flow1mode random one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
B. flow monitor flow1mode random one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 ip flow monitor flow1
C. flow-sampler-map flow1one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
D. ip flow-export source fas0/0 one-out-of 100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Cisco IOS Firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides stateful packet inspection.
B. It provides faster processing of packets than Cisco ASA devices provide.
C. It provides protocol-conformance checks against traffic.
D. It eliminates the need to secure routers and switches throughout the network.
E. It eliminates the need to secure host machines throughout the network.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which three configurations are needed to enable SNMPv3 support on the Cisco ASA? 300-206 dumps (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 Local EngineID
B. SNMPv3 Remote EngineID
C. SNMP Users
D. SNMP Groups
E. SNMP Community Strings
F. SNMP Hosts
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 4
A Cisco ASA is configured for TLS proxy. When should the security appliance force remote IP phones connecting to the phone proxy through the internet to be in secured mode?
A. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is in non-secure mode
B. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is in secure mode only
C. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not part of a cluster
D. When the Cisco ASA is configured for IPSec VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is the default behavior of an access list on the Cisco ASA security appliance?
A. It will permit or deny traffic based on the access-list criteria.
B. It will permit or deny all traffic on a specified interface.
C. An access group must be configured before the access list will take effect for traffic control.
D. It will allow all traffic.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What are three of the RBAC views within Cisco IOS Software? (Choose three.)
A. Admin
B. CLI
C. Root
D. Super Admin
E. Guest
F. Super
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 7
What is the default behavior of NAT control on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3?
A. NAT control has been deprecated on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3.
B. It will prevent traffic from traversing from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
C. It will allow traffic to traverse from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
D. It will deny all traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following would need to be created to configure an application-layer inspection of SMTP traffic operating on port 2525? 300-206 dumps
A. A class-map that matches port 2525 and applying an inspect ESMTP policy-map for that class in the global inspection policy
B. A policy-map that matches port 2525 and applying an inspect ESMTP class-map for that policy
C. An access-list that matches on TCP port 2525 traffic and applying it on an interface with the inspect option
D. A class-map that matches port 2525 and applying it on an access-list using the inspect option
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
For which management session types does ASDM allow a maximum simultaneous connection limit to be set?
A. ASDM, Telnet, SSH
B. ASDM, Telnet, SSH, console
C. ASDM, Telnet, SSH, VTY
D. ASDM, Telnet, SSH, other
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two options are purposes of the packet-tracer command? (Choose two.)
A. to filter and monitor ingress traffic to a switch
B. to configure an interface-specific packet trace
C. to simulate network traffic through a data path
D. to debug packet drops in a production network
E. to automatically correct an ACL entry in an ASA
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that belongs to more than one context. Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-250
Total Questions: 80 Q&As
210-250 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is the impact of using a Call Type node in a routing script for the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system?
A. The call type is changed and maintains the old data in the original call type.
B. The call is reset to the new call type, like a new call with all counters reset to zero.
C. There is no impact, the call type is only used for the initial script selection process.
D. The call is reclassified and the system picks a new routing script based on the call type.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
How is accurate service-level information obtained in a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Parent/Child model with calls queued at the parent?
A. in the parent Cisco Unified ICM system, using Agent Level Detail data
B. in the parent Cisco Unified ICM system, using skill group data
C. in the child Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, using call type data
D. in the child Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, using services data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Under which circumstances can the visible and private networks be converged in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system?
A. when QoS is enabled on both networks
B. in cases in which there is gigabit bandwidth between sites
C. under no circumstances
D. when the Cisco Catalyst switch has dual power supplies
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
When a call is processed using the Ring No Answer dialed number in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise, what does the caller experience? 210-250 dumps
A. The caller hears ringing at the agent; this ringing continues until the caller drops the call.
B. The caller hears queue music and is sent to the default queue for that call type.
C. The caller hears ringing at the agent and then follows the new script for Ring No Answer.
D. The caller is automatically transferred to the next agent without any indication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following types of traffic from the PG to the central controller is considered high priority in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. configuration requests
B. skill group data
C. routing and DMP control traffic
D. Real-Time Monitoring
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
How does Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise provide security to the system?
A. Microsoft Windows Active Directory is used to control access to the system.
B. Microsoft SQL Server accounts and logins for all users are used to control access to the system.
C. Cisco Synchronization Service is used to control access to the system.
D. Administrator accounts for the system are encrypted and kept in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise database to control access to the system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What role does Cisco Unified Communications Manager play in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. automatic call distribution
B. integrated call distribution
C. interactive voice response system
D. call switching to agent and Cisco Unified IP IVR
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
When the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system transfers a call to the Cisco Unified IP IVR using a “Translation Route to VRU” node, which label is sent to the routing client?
A. Cisco Unified IP IVR CTI route point
B. Cisco Unified IP IVR CTI port
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MTP
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI route point
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
When is a call type assigned to a call in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system?
A. when the call is routed to an agent
B. when the call is first post-routed from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. when the call terminates and data is written to the Cisco TCD table
D. when a call-routing script hits the first Queue to Skill Group node
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What role does the Cisco Unified ICM play in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution? 210-250 dumps
A. plays music on hold and in queue for callers
B. terminates media streams for agents and callers
C. provides routing and queuing instructions for contacts
D. records and stores voice calls for quality purposes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What is the recommended way to configure redundant Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscribers for Cisco IP phone registration in a single cluster for the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. add a redundant device pool to the Cisco Unified CallManager Group configuration
B. add a second TFTP server to the cluster
C. add an additional Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Group defined in Device pool of the Cisco IP Phone
D. use an SRST reference in the device pool
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
When Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is deployed with Cisco Unified IP IVR as the queue point, where does Ring No Answer treatment get defined?
A. In the Cisco Unified IP IVR application editor script
B. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Agent desk settings in ConfigManager
C. In the re-query node in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise routing script
D. In the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Call Forward No Answer setting
Correct Answer: B

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