Cisco

Newly updated 350-401 dumps can help candidates get better

get better

Why choose CCNP Enterprise 350-401 dumps?

350-401 dumps help you successfully pass the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) certification exam to configure, troubleshoot, and manage the networks of the world’s largest companies.

Of course, candidates still need to go through the second step, choose any one of the CCNP Enterprise centralized examination, this is the 1+1 rule of Cisco CCNP Enterprise certification, candidates must know.

Do you want to be a leader in enterprise wireless technology and enterprise infrastructure technology?

Your first step is to pass the qualifying exam: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR 350-401),Then take the lab exam: CCIE Enterprise Wireless v1.0.

So candidates wanting to enter the field first need to pass the 350-401 ENCOR exam, download the newly updated 350-401 dumps with PDF and VCE study tools: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html (866 Q&A), Help candidates get better.

Free download of the new 350-401 PDF exam questions and answers:https://drive.google.com/file/d/14FtbIb6_G2tGECN_fvyVIxB7I8VqpH8r/

Read the free 350-401 exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
13Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)Lead4PassNov 10, 2022Oct 08, 2022
NEW QUESTION 1:

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients\’?

new 350-401 exam questions 1
new 350-401 exam questions 1-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2:

Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two.)

A. Increase minimum mandatory data rate

B. Reduce AP transmit power

C. Disable 2.4 GHz and use only 5 GHz.

D. Enable Fastlane.

E. Reduce channel width from 40 MHz to 20 MHz

Correct Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 exam questions 3

What are two results of the NAT configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Packets with a destination of 200.1.1.1 are translated to 10.1.1.1 or .2. respectively.
B. A packet that is sent to 200.1.1.1 from 10.1.1.1 is translated to 209.165.201.1 on R1.
C. R1 looks at the destination IP address of packets entering S0/0 and destined for inside hosts.
D. R1 processes packets entering E0/0 and S0/0 by examining the source IP address.
E. R1 is performing NAT for inside addresses and outside address.

Correct Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 4:

Which A record type should be configured for access points to resolve the IP address of a wireless LAN controller using DNS?

A. CISCO.CONTROLLER.localdomain
B. CISCO.CAPWAP.CONTROLLER.localdomain
C. CISCO-CONTROLLER.localdomain
D. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code construct a script that configure a loopback interface with an IP address (not all options are used)?

Select and Place:

new 350-401 exam questions 5

Correct Answer:

new 350-401 exam questions 5-1

NEW QUESTION 6:

Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments In a VXLAN environment?

A. switch fabric
B. VTEP
C. VNID
D. host switch

Correct Answer: C

VXLAN uses an 8-byte VXLAN header that consists of a 24-bit VNID and a few reserved bits. The VXLAN
header together with the original Ethernet frame goes in the UDP payload. The 24-bit VNID is used to
identify Layer 2 segments and to maintain Layer 2 isolation between the segments.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7-x/vxlan/
configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x/
b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x_chapter_010.html

NEW QUESTION 7:

How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

A. An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.

B. The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C. The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client

D. The client database on the original controller is updated the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8:

What is one primary REST security design principle?

A. fail-safe defaults
B. password hash
C. adding a timestamp in requests
D. OAuth

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 exam questions 9
new 350-401 exam questions 9-1

Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209 165 201 0/27 via BR1?

A. Set the weight attribute to 65.535 on BR1 toward PE1.
B. Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound
C. Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound.
D. Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10:

An engineer must protect the password for the VTY lines against over-the-shoulder attacks. Which configuration should be applied?

A. service password-ncryption
B. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMf8elb4RVV8$seZ/bDA
C. username netadmin secret 7$1$42J36k33008Pyh4QzwXyZ4
D. line vty 0 15 p3ssword XD822j

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11:

An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?

A. logging buffer
B. service timestamps log uptime
C. logging host
D. terminal monitor

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right.

Select and Place:

new 350-401 exam questions 12

Correct Answer:

new q12-1

There are four messages sent between the DHCP Client and DHCP Server: DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER,
DHCPREQUEST and DHCPACKNOWLEDGEMENT. This process is often abbreviated as DORA (for Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledgement).

NEW QUESTION 13:

A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent?

A. container
B. Type 1 hypervisor
C. hardware pass-thru
D. Type 2 hypervisor

Correct Answer: D

In contrast to type 1 hypervisor, a type 2 hypervisor (or hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an operating system and not the physical hardware directly. A big advantage of Type 2 hypervisors is that management console software is not required. Examples of type 2 hypervisor are VMware Workstation (which can run on Windows, Mac and Linux) or Microsoft Virtual PC (only runs on Windows).


Download the above free 350-401 exam questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/file/d/14FtbIb6_G2tGECN_fvyVIxB7I8VqpH8r/

The 350-401 ENCOR exam is the core exam for CCNP Enterprise, CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure, and CCIE Enterprise Wireless.Try using 350-401 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html (dumps PDF + VCE) Help candidates successfully pass the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) certification exam for the first time.

[Latest Updated] Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps with PDF and VCE covering the actual exam

Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps with PDF files and VCE exam engine, contains 294 up-to-date exam questions and answers, truly covering the full 200-901 DEVASC actual exam questions.

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Take the Cisco 200-901 dumps exam questions online practice test:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease time
15Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)Lead4PassSep 30, 2022
New Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Check answer >>

New Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command line is driven interface

Check answer >>

New Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Check answer >>

New Question 4:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Check answer >>

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco 200-901 dumps exam q5

What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?

Cisco 200-901 dumps exam q5-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Check answer >>

New Question 6:

What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?

A. MAC address

B. IPv6 address

C. spanning tree

D. IPv4 address

Check answer >>

New Question 7:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “communication administratively prohibited”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.

B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.

C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus drops traffic.

D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.

Check answer >>

New Question 8:

What is an advantage of a version control system?

A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code

B. ensures that unit tests are written

C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files

D. forces the practice of trunk-based development

Check answer >>

New Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco 200-901 dumps exam q9

What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?

A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

Check answer >>

New Question 10:

A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?

A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.

B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.

C. The server accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.

D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.

Check answer >>

New Question 11:

What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements the desired function.

B. Write a failing test case for the desired function.

C. Reverse engineer the code for the desired function.

D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Check answer >>

New Question 12:

What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?

A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively

B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application

C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address

D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application

Check answer >>

New Question 13:

A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)

A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.

B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.

C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.

D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.

E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.

Check answer >>

New Question 14:

What operation is performed with YANG model-driven programmability in NX-OS?

A. configure a device with native and OpenConfig-based models

B. bootstrap a device that has a factory-default configuration

C. send CLI commands to a device and retrieve output in JSON format

D. run Linux commands natively on the device

Check answer >>

New Question 15:

What is the function of an IP address in networking?

A. represents a network connection on specific devices

B. specifies the type of traffic that is allowed to roam on a network

C. specifies the resource\’s location and the mechanism to retrieve it

D. represents the unique ID that is assigned to one host on a network

Check answer >>

Verify the answer:

Number:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answer:CACCBDAAADBBBABAD

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Cisco 100-490 dumps: serves all 100-490 RSTECH exam candidates

The newly updated Cisco 100-490 dumps contain 60 exam questions and answers that candidates can study using the 100-490 dumps PDF and 100-490 dumps VCE to help you successfully pass the 100-490 RSTECH exam.

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Share the latest Cisco 100-490 dumps exam questions and answers for free

New Question 1:

What is the correct IPv6 address notation?

A. 2001:0DB8::/128

B. 2001:0DB8:0::

C. 2001:0DB8::1:1:1:1:1

D. 2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B

Correct Answer: D


New Question 2:

Which two statements about Telnet and SSH are true? (Choose two.)

A. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.

B. SSH uses the well-known TCP port 23 for its communication.

C. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.

D. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.

E. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 3:

Which address facilitates the routing of packets over an IP network?

A. physical

B. transport

C. network

D. MAC

Correct Answer: C


New Question 4:

Which two IPv4 addresses can be assigned to a host computer? (Choose two.)

A. 255.255.255.255

B. 10.1.1.20

C. 0.0.0.0

D. 192.168.10.15

E. 292.10.3.4

Correct Answer: BD


New Question 5:

Which device is a DTE device?

A. CSU/DSU

B. router

C. cable modem

D. DSL modem

Correct Answer: B


New Question 6:

Which layer of the OSI model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?

A. presentation

B. data link

C. network

D. transport

Correct Answer: B


New Question 7:

Which command shows the status of power supplies and sensor temperatures?

A. show hardware

B. show module

C. show environment

D. show diag

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/m/en_us/techdoc/dc/reference/cli/n5k/commands/show-environment.html


New Question 8:

What are two standard fiber-optic connectors? (Choose two.)

A. Lucent

B. rollover

C. subscriber

D. multidimension

E. crossover

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 9:

Which two pairs of LAN Ethernet devices use an RJ-45 straight-through cable? (Choose two.)

A. switch-to-switch

B. switch-to-router

C. switch-to-hub

D. router-to-router

E. switch-to-server

Correct Answer: BE


New Question 10:

Which two features are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

A. consists of a single strand of glass fiber

B. has higher attenuation that multimode fiber

C. carries a higher bandwidth that multimode fiber

D. costs less than multimode fiber

E. operates over less distance than multimode fiber

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 11:

Which type of transceiver module is used for 40 Gigabit Ethernet connectivity?

A. SFP+

B. GBIC

C. QSFP+

D. XFP

Correct Answer: C


New Question 12:

What is the line speed of a DS0 in North America?

A. 16 kbps

B. 32 kbps

C. 64 kbps

D. 128 kbps

Correct Answer: C


New Question 13:

Which two statements about a SmartJack are true? (Choose two.)

A. It provides signal conversion.

B. It acts as a concentration point for dial-in and dial-out connections.

C. It operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.

D. It provides channel testing.

E. It regenerates the signal to compensate for signal degradation from line transmission.

Correct Answer: AE


New Question 14:

The pins on an RJ-45 cable plug are numbered from 1 through 8. When the metal pins of the plug are facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets of pins are looped on an RJ-45 56K loopback plug? (Choose two.)

A. pins 2 and 7

B. pins 2 and 8

C. pins 2 and 5

D. pins 1 and 7

E. pins 1 and 4

Correct Answer: CE


New Question 15:

Which type of memory is used to permanently store Cisco IOS Software?

A. NVRAM

B. flash

C. SRAM

D. DRAM

Correct Answer: A

Download the Cisco 100-490 PDF for free sharing online:

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Prepare for the 300-720 SESA exam: Use the newly updated 300-720 SESA dumps

Lead4pass has updated 300-720 SESA dumps with 94 latest exam questions and answers to help you prepare for the 300-720 SESA exam and successfully pass one of the CCNP Security Concentration exams (300-720 SESA exam).

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Try some of the free 300-720 dumps exam questions online:

New Question 1:

Which SMTP extension does Cisco ESA support for email security?

A. ETRN

B. UTF8SMTP

C. PIPELINING

D. STARTTLS

View Answer


New Question 2:

Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting into the Cisco ESA?

A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering

B. Connection Reputation Filtering

C. Talos Reputation Filtering

D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering

View Answer


New Question 3:

Which benefit does enabling external spam quarantine on Cisco SMA provide?

A. ability to back up spam quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console

B. access to the spam quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete

C. ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate

D. ability to consolidate spam quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESA to one central console

View Answer


New Question 4:

When email authentication is configured on Cisco ESA, which two key types should be selected on the signing profile? (Choose two.)

A. DKIM

B. Public Keys

C. Domain Keys

D. Symmetric Keys

E. Private Keys

View Answer


New Question 5:

What are two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject

B. workqueue

C. action

D. delivery

E. quarantine

View Answer


New Question 6:

Which two action types are performed by Cisco ESA message filters? (Choose two.)

A. non-final actions

B. filter actions

C. discard actions

D. final actions

E. quarantine actions

View Answer


New Question 7:

Which setting affects the aggressiveness of spam detection?

A. protection level

B. spam threshold

C. spam timeout

D. maximum depth of recursion scan

View Answer


New Question 8:

What is the order of virus scanning when multilayer antivirus scanning is configured?

A. The default engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

B. The Sophos engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

C. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the default engine scans for viruses second.

D. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the Sophos engine scans for viruses second.

View Answer

If you configure multi-layer anti-virus scanning, the Cisco appliance performs virus scanning with the McAfee engine first and the Sophos engine second. It scans messages using both engines, unless the McAfee engine detects a virus. If the McAfee engine detects a virus, the Cisco appliance performs the anti-virus actions (repairing, quarantining, etc.) defined for the mail policy.


New Question 9:

What are two prerequisites for implementing undesirable URL protection in Cisco ESA? (Choose two.)

A. Enable outbreak filters.

B. Enable email relay.

C. Enable antispam scanning.

D. Enable port bouncing.

E. Enable antivirus scanning.

View Answer


New Question 10:

Which suboption must be selected when LDAP is configured for Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication?

A. Designate as the active query

B. Update Frequency

C. Server Priority

D. Entity ID

View Answer


New Question 11:

What is the maximum message size that can be configured for encryption on the Cisco ESA?

A. 20 MB

B. 25 MB

C. 15 MB

D. 30 MB

View Answer


New Question 12:

An analyst creates a new content dictionary to use with Forged Email Detection. Which entry will be added into the dictionary?

A. mycompany.com

B. Alpha Beta

C. ^Alpha\ Beta$

D. [email protected]

View Answer


New Question 13:

Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safelist?

A. message filter

B. antivirus scanning

C. outbreak filter

D. antispam scanning

View Answer


New Question 14:

Which two query types are available when an LDAP profile is configured? (Choose two.)

A. proxy consolidation

B. user

C. recursive

D. group

E. routing

View Answer


New Question 15:

Which action is a valid fallback when a client certificate is unavailable during SMTP authentication on Cisco ESA?

A. LDAP Query

B. SMTP AUTH

C. SMTP TLS

D. LDAP BIND

View Answer

Verify the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:DADACBDADBCACAAAADEB

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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 500-560
Exam Name: Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions Exam
Certification: Cisco Express Specialization – Networking Track
Duration: 60 minutes
Languages: English
Price:
Number of Questions: 45 – 55
500-560 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/500-560.html (Total Questions: 50 Q&A)

Cisco 500-560 exam questions online practice test:

Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

What is one feature of MV cameras that allows users to optimize video retention?

A. zoom lens

B. motion-based retention

C. low bit rate and frame rate

D. high definition

Question 2:

Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing what you intended it to do?

A. Cisco DNA Assurance

B. Cisco ACI Anywhere

C. Cisco DNA Spaces

D. Cisco HyperFlex

Question 3:

What is one capability of the Catalyst 9200 web user interface?

A. integrating with compatible Cisco routers

B. providing AMP support

C. opening a case with Cisco Technical Assistance Center

D. monitoring selected sections on the dashboard

Question 4:

Where on the Web User interface can customers find details of application visibility and control?

A. the monitoring panel

B. the dashboard

C. configuration

D. troubleshooting

Question 5:

Which combination of MS switch models has supported foe physical stacking with each other?

A. MS120-8 and MS120-24

B. MS350-48 and MS350-24X

C. MS225-48 and MS350-48

D. MS225-24 and MS425-16

Question 6:

What is one benefit of the Cisco 1100 ISR router over the 900 ISR router for mid-size organizations?

A. The 1100 ISR provides support for xDSL types of WAN interfaces

B. The 1100 ISR is compatible with all Cisco switches.

C. The 1100 ISR provides APIC support.

D. The 1100 ISR includes a built-in firewall and advanced QOS features.

Question 7:

Which statement is true about Cisco Mobility Express?

A. It must be connected to a separate physical wireless controller to provide full enterprise features.

B. It can be deployed in under 10 minutes with an easy 3-stepover-the-air configuration wizard.

C. It comes with a simple, easy-to-use vManage dashboard.

D. Customers must purchase a license to support more than 50 APs.

Question 8:

Which is an SKU for Mobility Express?

A. AIR-AP1815W-X-K9

B. AlR-AP28021-K9

C. AIR-AP18151-K9C

D. AlR-AP18521-K9

Question 9:

What is one benefit of the Aironet 4800 AP?

A. cost-effectiveness for small-to-medium-sized deployments

B. modularity for investment protection

C. Cisco CleanAir

D. industry-leading hyper location

Question 10:

Which Cisco product is the network management system, foundational controller, and analytics platform all the center of ……. network?

A. Cisco DNA Spaces

B. Cisco Meraki

C. Cisco DNA Center

D. Cisco Wireless Solutions

Question 11:

What feature of the Catalyst does 2960-L allow customers to get a small branch or office network running within minutes?

A. support for Cisco DNA center

B. on-box web interface for configuration

C. flexible deployments with StackWise-160

D. complete CLI support

Question 12:

Which is a function performed by the dedicated third radio in MR access points?

A. RF optimization (Auto RF)

B. WLAN controller

C. Site survey planning

D. DHCP addressing

Question 13:

Which three product capabilities allow Cisco DNA Spaces to deliver business value?

A. Sense, Act, and Partner

B. View, Interpret, and Act

C. See, Anticipate and Respond

D. See, Act, and Extend

Question 14:

What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX Security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)

B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)

C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

Question 15:

Which statement correctly describes how Cisco Meraki devices behave should they be unable to contact the Meraki Cloud server?

A. The network devices will attempt to establish a connection to a locally hosted database server that has been configured for high availability.

B. The devices may be re-initiated into a backup mode if an administrator manually intervenes using a direct, local connection.

C. The network stops passing traffic across all devices and the interfaces including any connected non-Cisco Meraki devices.

D. The network devices continue to function normally (traffic lows at full rate) but management and configuration functions are interrupted.

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:BADBBCBCDCBADBD

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latest updated Cisco 300-815 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
What is the first preference condition matched in a SIP-enabled incoming dial peer?
A. incoming uri
B. target carrier-id
C. answer-address
D. incoming called-number
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip-voip/211306-In-DepthExplanation-of-Cisco-IOS-and-IO.html#anc8

 

QUESTION 2
What is the relationship between partition, time schedule, and the time period in Time-of-Day routing in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager?
A. A partition can have multiple time schedules assigned. A time schedule contains one or more time periods.
B. A partition can have a one-time schedule assigned. A time schedule contains one or more time periods.
C. A partition can have multiple time schedules assigned. A time schedule contains only one time period.
D. A partition can have a one-time schedule assigned. A time schedule contains only one time period.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
When locations-based Call Admission Control denies the call, which two masks can AAR apply when routing the call
through the PSTN? (Choose two.)
A. AAR destination mask
B. called party transform mask
C. external phone number mask
D. +E.164 alternate number mask
E. enterprise alternate number mask
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab10/collab10/dialplan.html

QUESTION 4
A user in location X dials an extension at location Y. The call travels through a QoS-enabled WAN network, but the user
experiences choppy or clipped audio. What is the cause of this issue?
A. missing Call Admission Control
B. codec mismatch
C. ptime mismatch
D. phone class of service issue
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
The administrator of ABC company is troubleshooting a one-way audio issue for a call that uses H.323 protocol (slowstart mode). The administrator requests that you provide the IP and port information of the Real-Time Transport Protocol
traffic that had the one-way audio call.
You gather the H.225 and H.245 messages for one of the one-way audio calls. Where can you find the RTP IP and port
information for both sides? (Note: This call flow has not invoked any media resources like MTP or transcoders).
A. H.245 Terminal Capability Set
B. H.245 Open Logical Channel
C. H.225 Connect
D. H.245 Open Logical Channel Ack
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://ccievoicehopeful.blogspot.com/2012/09/h323-notes.html

 

QUESTION 6
You see the voice register pool 1 command in your Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express configuration.
Which configuration is occurring in this section?
A. configuration for a single SIP phone
B. configuration items common for all SIP phones
C. configuration for a pool of SIP phones (similar to devise pool on Cisco Unified Communications Manager)
D. configuration for SIP registrar service
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cusrst/admin/sccp_sip_srst/configuration/guide/SCCP_and_SIP_SRST_Admin_Guide/srst_setting_up_using_sip.html

 

QUESTION 7[2021.2] lead4pass 300-815 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Users report that when they dial Cisco Unity Connection from an external network, they cannot
enter any digits. Assuming only in-band DTMF is supported, what is the reason for this malfunction?
A. The negotiated RTP port is outside of the range described by RFC, so inband DTMFs do not work.
B. There is SIP Delayed Offer. DTMF is supported only in Early Offer.
C. The rtpmap:0 value for the negotiated codec is marking DTMF as inactive.
D. No DTMF is negotiated.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8[2021.2] lead4pass 300-815 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. A user reports that when they call a specific phone number, no one answers the call, but when they
call from a mobile phone, the call is answered. The engineer troubleshooting the issue is expecting the far-end gateway
to cut through audio on the 183 Session Progress SIP message. Which SIP Profile configuration element is necessary
for the Cisco Unified Communications Manager to send acknowledgement of provisional responses?
A. Allow Passthrough of Configured Line Device Caller Information must be enabled.
B. Accept Audio Codec Preferences in Received Offer must be set to On.
C. On the SIP Profile, the configuration parameter SIP Rel1XX Options must be set to Send PRACK for all 1xx
Messages.
D. Early Offer for G Clear Calls must be enabled.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9[2021.2] lead4pass 300-815 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. Users report that outbound PSTN calls from phones registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager are not completing. The local service provider in North America has a requirement to receive calls in 10-digit
format. The Cisco Unified CM sends the calls to the Cisco Unified Border Element router in a globalized E.164 format.
There is an outbound dial-peer on Cisco Unified Border Element configured to send the calls to the provider. The dial-peer has a voice translation profile applied in the correct direction but an incorrect voice translation rule applied, which is
shown in the exhibit. Which rule modified DNIS in the format that the provider is expecting?
A. rule 1 /^/+\([^1].*\)/ /011\1/
B. rule 1/^\+1\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\1/
C. rule 1 /^\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\1/
D. rule 1 /^\+1\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\0/
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
An administrator is troubleshooting call failures on an H.323 gateway via the CLI. To see signaling for media and call
setup, which debug must the Administrator turn on?
A. debug H.323 messages
B. debug H.225 asn1
C. debug H.246 asn 1
D. debug H.225 media
E. debug H.323 asn 1
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
When configuring hunt groups, where do you add the individual directory numbers that will be part of the group?
A. route group
B. line group
C. hunt list
D. hunt pilot
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/12_0_1/systemConfig/cucm_b_systemconfiguration-guide-1201/cucm_b_system-configuration-guide-1201_chapter_010101.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are correct with respect to the Client Matter Code setting in the route pattern configuration?
(Choose two.)
A. The Client Matter Code feature does not support overlap sending because the Cisco Unified CM cannot determine
when to prompt the user for the code.
B. If you check the Allow Overlap Sending check box, the Require Client Matter Code check box becomes disabled.
C. If you check the Allow Overlap Sending check box, you can also check the Require Client Matter Code check box.
D. The Client Matter Code feature does support overlap sending because the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
can determine when to prompt the user for the code.
E. The Client Matter Code has the option to configure Authorization Level such as in the Forced Authorization Code.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmfeat/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F
_00_cucm-features-services-guide-100/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F_00_cucm-features-servicesguide100_chapter_010000.pdf

 

QUESTION 13
Which section under the Real-Time Monitoring Tool allows for reviewing the call flow and signaling for a SIP call in real-time?
A. Analysis Manager > Inventory > Trace File Repositories
B. System > Tools > Trace and Log Central
C. Voice/Video > Session Trace Log View > Real Time Data
D. Voice/Video > Session Trace Log View > Open From Local Disk
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-managercallmanager/213583-procedure-to-analyse-call-flow-of-sip-ca.html

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Latest updates Cisco 300-420 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

What is the advantage of designing an out-of-band network management solution?
A. In the event of a production network outage, network devices can still be managed.
B. There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
C. In the event of a production network outage, it can be used as a backup network path.
D. It is less expensive than an in-band management solution

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which design consideration should be observed when EIGRP is configured on Data Center switches?
A. Perform manual summarization on all Layer 3 interfaces to minimize the size of the routing table.
B. Prevent unnecessary EIGRP neighborships from forming across switch virtual interfaces.
C. Lower EIGRP hello and hold timers to their minimum settings to ensure rapid route reconvergence.
D. Configure multiple EIGRP autonomous systems to segment Data Center services and applications.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

A customer is discussing QoS requirements with a network consultant. The customer has specified that end-to-end path
verification is a requirement. Which QoS solution meets this requirement?
A. IntServ model with RSVP to support the traffic flows
B. DiffServ model with PHB to support the traffic flows
C. marking traffic at the access layer with DSCP to support the traffic flows
D. marking traffic at the access layer with CoS to support the traffic flows

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

How do endpoints inside an SD-Access network reach resources outside the fabric?
A. a VRF fusion router is used to map resources in one VN to another VN
B. Fabric borders use VRFs to map VNs to VRFs
C. SD-Access transit links are used to transport encapsulated traffic from one fabric to another
D. A fabric edge is used to de-encapsulate VXLAN traffic to normal IP traffic then transported over the outside network

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

Which feature is required for a graceful restart to recover from a processor failure?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
B. Virtual Switch System
C. Stateful Switchover
D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

A branch office has a primary L3VPN MPLS connection back to the main office and an IPSEC VPN tunnel that serves
as a backup. Which design ensures that data is sent over the backup connection only if the primary MPLS circuit is
down?
A. Use EIGRP to establish a neighbor relationship with the main office via L3VPN MPLS and the IPSEC VPN tunnel.
B. Use BGP with the multipath feature enabled to force traffic via the primary path when available.
C. Use static routes tied to an IP SLA to prefer the primary path while a floating static route points to the backup
connection.
D. Use OSPF with a passive-interface command on the backup connection.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay?
A. underlay, MPLS, and overlay
B. primary, backup, and load-balanced
C. prefix, TLOC, and service
D. Internet, MPLS, and backup

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

examscode 300-420 q8

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must optimize the traffic flow of the network. Which change provides a more efficient
design between the access and the distribution layer?
A. Add a link between access switch A and access switch B
B. Reconfigure the distribution switch A to become the HSRP Active
C. Change the link between distribution switch A and distribution switch B to be a routed link
D. Create an EtherChannel link between distribution switch A and distribution switch B

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

An engineer is designing an enterprise campus network. The LAN infrastructure consists of switches from multiple
vendors, and Spanning Tree must be used as a Layer 2 loop prevention mechanism. All configured VLANs must be
grouped in two SIP instances. Which standards-based Spanning Tree technology supports this design solution?
A. MSTP
B. RSTP
C. Rapid PVST
D. STP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which NETCONF operation creates filtering that is specific to the session notifications?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

What is the benefit of using VRRPv3 as compared to VRRPv2?
A. VRRPv3 supports IPv4 and IPv6
B. VRRPv3 supports authentication
C. VRRPv3 supports preemption
D. VRRPv3 supports stateful switchover

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Which OSPF area blocks LSA Type 3, 4 and 5, but allows a default summary route?
A. normal
B. stub
C. NSSA
D. totally stubby

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

What are two valid scaling techniques when an EIGRP network is designed that consists of more than 1000 routers?
(Choose two.)
A. Use structured hierarchical topology with route summarization
B. Used sub-second timers
C. Use the distribute-list command to filter routes
D. Modify delay parameters on the links
E. Implement multiple EIGRP autonomous systems

Correct Answer: AE

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Latest updates Cisco 500-710 exam
practice questions

QUESTION 1

An engineer wants to add a domain to a numeric E.164 alias dialed by an H.323 endpoint. Which opinion is the Cisco

recommended method to add this domain in the Expressway configurations? 

A. transforms 

B. user policy 

C. service preference 

D. call policy 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 2

Which protocol is used to communicate codec capabilities and Real-Time Transport Protocol ports? 

A. Real-Time Transport Control Protocol 

B. Session Description Protocol 

C. H.460 

D. Assent 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 3

Which description of the steps one must take to build a TMS phone book is true? 

A. Connect TMS to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager contact list files, create a phone book, connect the files

to a phone book, and set on systems. 

B. Export a .csv file to the TMS database from AD or Outlook, create a phone book, connect the file to a phone book,

and set on systems. 

C. Create a contact list, create a phone book, connect the contact list to the phone book, and set on systems. 

D. Create a source, create a phone book, connect the source to the phone book, and set on systems. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 4

Which two statements about the assignment of endpoints to a subzone are true? (Choose two.) 

A. A registration restriction rule must be configured that matches the endpoint\\’s alias or IP subnet. 

B. Endpoints making a traversal call must be registered to the traversal subzone. 

C. By default, all endpoints are registered to the default subzone. 

D. By default, all endpoints are registered to the neighbor subzone. 

E. A subzone membership rule must be configured that matches the endpoint\\’s alias or IP subnet. 

Correct Answer: CE 

 

QUESTION 5

Which statement about integrating a Cisco Expressway with a resilient and scalable Cisco Meeting Server deployment

is true? 

A. Neither Expressway cores nor Expressway edges can be integrated with Cisco Meeting Server. 

B. Only Cisco Expressway cores can be integrated with Cisco Meeting Server. 

C. Only Expressway edges can be integrated with Cisco Meeting Server. 

D. Expressway cores and Expressway edges can be integrated with Cisco Meeting Server. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 6

Which group of items must be configured when adding a Cisco Meeting Server toTMS before the server can be used in

scheduled conferences? 

A. DNS address, numeric ID base, numeric ID quantity 

B. domain, numeric ID base, conference ID range 

C. MACaddress, numeric ID base, numeric ID quantity 

D. domain, numeric ID base, numeric ID quantity 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 7

Which Hybrid Services connector provides integration between on-premises calendaring application and Cisco

Collaboration Cloud? 

A. Calendar Connector 

B. Call Control 

C. Management 

D. Directory Connector 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 8

An administrator notices that when alias information is changed manually on an endpoint that is registered to an

Expressway, the changes are successful, but then revert back to their original state the following day. Which cause is

the most likely? 

A. The changes are not being saved properly on the endpoint. 

B. A template is being persistently pushed to the endpoint from TMS. 

C. A template is being pushed persistently to the endpoint from the Expressway. 

D. The alias information of the endpoint is duplicated on another endpoint. 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 9

Which statement about Microsoft Skype for Business interoperability with Cisco Meeting Server is true? 

A. Calls cannot be place between S4B and Cisco Meeting App users 

B. Local directories can always be used between S4B users and CMA 

C. Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting App users 

D. Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting Server Spaces 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 10

Where in the TMS application does an engineer add individual endpoints or infrastructure to the TMS database? 

A. System > Navigator 

B. System > System Overview 

C. System > Provisioning 

D. System > Manage Dial Plan 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 11

Which type of customization options are available on the Cisco Meeting Server? 

A. customizing protocols used 

B. branding spaces 

C. customizing aliases used 

D. branding the WebRTC clients 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 12

An engineer must match any incoming call to the Expressway that is searching for an E.164 address of only 6 digits and

append the domain cisco.com to the end. Which pattern match and replace string using regular expressions accomplish

this task? (Choose two.) 

A. pattern match: ({6}*) 

B. pattern match ({6}\d) 

C. pattern match ({5}\d) 

D. replace string: \[email protected] 

E. replace string: \[email protected] 

F. replace string: \[email protected] 

Correct Answer: BE 

 

QUESTION 13

Which two elements of authentication credentials are stored in the local database of the Expressway? (Choose two.) 

A. username 

B. user authority 

C. CA authority 

D. crypto hash key 

E. password 

Correct Answer: AE

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Latest Cisco 500-301 exam practice

QUESTION 1
Which feature can be customized in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room view?
A. Change your PIN.
B. Automatically lock your room.
C. Configure alternate hosts.
D. Change the drink image.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is a Spark Phone?
A. UC VoIP and video phones that associate with an individual user
B. UC VoIP phones that associate with an individual user
C. UC VoIP phones that associate with a location
D. UC VoIP and video phones that associate with an individual user or location
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which alias do you dial from the video endpoint to start a Cisco WebEx Personal Room meeting?
A. @
B. /join/
C. @WebEx.com
D. /meet/
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which path do you take to configure the Automatic Lock feature in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room?
A. My WebEx > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
B. Preferences > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
C. My WebEx > Preferences > Automatic Lock
D. My WebEx > Preferences > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
Correct Answer: B
https://collaborationhelp.cisco.com/article/en-us/8zi8tq

QUESTION 5
Which feature can be customized in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room view?
A. Change your PIN.
B. Change the desk image.
C. Automatically lock your room.
D. Configure alternate hosts.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which path do you take to configure the Automatic Lock feature in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room?
A. My WebEx > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
B. My WebEx > Preferences > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
C. My WebEx > Preferences > Automatic Lock
D. Preferences > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which option do you select in the WebEx toolbar in Outlook to invite people to your Personal Room?
A. Select Schedule Personal Room Meeting.
B. Select Schedule WebEx Meeting
C. Select Invite and Remind
D. Select Meet Now
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which result occurs when you leave your Cisco WebEx Personal Room meeting?
A. All other participant are still connected
B. All other participants are disconnected, unless another participant is made the host.
C. All other participants are still connected, even if another participant is made the host.
D. All other participants are disconnected, even if another participant is made the host
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
\Which formats can a Skype for Business user dial to connect to a meeting in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center?
A. @lync.webex.com
B. [email protected]
C. [email protected] lync.webex.com
D. @. webex.com
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What happens to participants who try to access your Cisco WebEx Personal Room when the Lock option is enabled?
A. Those participants are disconnected.
B. Those participants hear a busy message and then are disconnected.
C. Those participants are presented with busy message and the option to join the meeting or wait until you are free.
D. Those participants are redirected to a virtual waiting room.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is a Spark Room?
A. video endpoints that are associated with a user or location
B. video endpoints that are associated with a location
C. video endpoints that are associated with a user
D. UC VoIP and video phones that are associated with a user
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which formats can a Skype for Business user dial to connect to a meeting in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center?
A. [email protected]
B. [email protected]
C. @.webex.com
D. @lync.webex.com
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which support tools option is available in the Cisco WebEx Support Center?
A. Monitor all sessions and agent activity at the queue and support-representative levels.
B. Set up queues with rules-based routing, by availability or skill set.
C. Allow recording of support sessions manually or automatically.
D. Allow technicians to reboot and reconnect.
Correct Answer: C

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Table of Contents:

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The Cisco CCIE Routing and Switching written exam validate that professionals have the expertise to: configure, validate, and troubleshoot complex enterprise network infrastructure; understand how infrastructure components interoperate; and translate functional requirements into specific device configurations.

cisco 400-101 exam practice

Latest updates Cisco 400-101 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

Which two protocols are used by the management plane?(choose two) 

A. ISSU 

B. BGP 

C. Telnet 

D. OSPF 

E. FTP 

F. DTP 

Correct Answer: CE 

 

QUESTION 2

Which two statements about IPv6 6to4 tunnels are true? (Choose two) 

A. They are point-to-multipoint tunnels 

B. Sites use addresses from the 2002::/16 prefix 

C. They rely on GRE encapsulation 

D. They are point-to-point tunnels 

E. Sites use addresses from the link-local scope 

Correct Answer: AB 

 

QUESTION 3

What is the source MAC address of a BPDU frame that is sent out of port? 

A. the same as the MAC address in the bridge ID 

B. the lowest MAC address on the switch 

C. the highest MAC address on the switch 

D. the MAC address of the individual port that is sending the BPDU 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 4

One of your clients which is in the manufacture area, is after a solution in order to manage all his fog nodes. Which

management tools best suits his needs? 

A. Cisco Connected Grid Network Management System 

B. Cisco Prime Infrastructure 

C. Cisco Network Control System 

D. Cisco Fog Director 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 5

Which two conditions can cause unicast flooding? (Choose two) 

A. symmetryc routing 

B. recurring TCNs 

C. rultiple MAC address in the Layer 2 forwarding table 

D. RIB table overflow 

E. forwarding table overflow 

Correct Answer: BE 

 

QUESTION 6

Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.) 

A. It supports unicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6. 

B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only. 

C. It supports only one address family per instance. 

D. It supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention. 

E. It supports multicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6. 

F. It supports multicast address families for IPv6 only. 

Correct Answer: AC 

 

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which tag will be applied to 172.16.50.0/24 route?lead4pass 400-101 exam question q7

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the OSPF network type on the left to the correct category of timers on the right.lead4pass 400-101 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-101 exam question q8-1

 

QUESTION 9
Unicast message to acknowledge.
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Correct Answer:

lead4pass 400-101 exam question q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
Which values does EIGRP use to determine the metric for a summary address?
A. A default fixed value
B. The average of the component metrics
C. The lowest metric among the component routes
D. The highest metric among the component routes
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
In an MPLS-VPN environment, what is the effect of configuring an identical set of route targets for a particular VRF but
then configuring nonidentical RD accross multiple PE devices?
A. The routes are rejected by remote PE because they have a different RD than its routes.
B. The routes propagate to the remore PE, but the PE never installs them in its forwarding table.
C. The routes are correctly managed by the control plane, but there are instances where routes take up twice as much
memory.
D. The routes are not sent to any remote PE with a differnt RD.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Which two events occur when a packet is decapsulated in a GRE tunnel? (Choose two.)
A. The destination IPv4 address in the IPv4 payload is used to forward the packet.
B. The TTL of the payload packet is decremented.
C. The source IPv4 address in the IPv4 payload is used to forward the packet
D. The TTL of the payload packet is incremented
E. The version field in the GRE header is incremented
F. The GRE keepalive mechanism is reset
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 13
Which two actions can you take to prevent routes from becoming stuck in active? (Choose two)
A. Manually increase the EIGRP metrics on interfaces connected to successors.
B. Use port channeling to aggregate multiple EIGRP interfaces
C. Increase the time a router waits before it declares routes stuck in active
D. Increase the EIGRP K values on low-bandwidth interfaces
E. Increase the Hello timers on all EIGRP interfaces
F. Design the network so that it uses the lowest possible number of queries
Correct Answer: CF

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