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Why choose CCNP Enterprise 350-401 dumps?

350-401 dumps help you successfully pass the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) certification exam to configure, troubleshoot, and manage the networks of the world’s largest companies.

Of course, candidates still need to go through the second step, choose any one of the CCNP Enterprise centralized examinations, this is the 1+1 rule of Cisco CCNP Enterprise certification, and candidates must know.

Do you want to be a leader in enterprise wireless technology and enterprise infrastructure technology?

Your first step is to pass the qualifying exam: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR 350-401), Then take the lab exam: CCIE Enterprise Wireless v1.0.

So candidates wanting to enter the field first need to pass the 350-401 ENCOR exam, download the newly updated 350-401 dumps with PDF and VCE study tools: https://www.leads4pass.com/350-401.html (1061 Q&A), Help candidates get better.

Free download of the new 350-401 PDF exam questions and answers:https://drive.google.com/file/d/14FtbIb6_G2tGECN_fvyVIxB7I8VqpH8r/

[Update 2023]Free download of the new 350-401 PDF exam questions and answers:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1q7p7W7Uu6jiwLTE1K-eeAqUhYVjnXrJn/

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1jt2NnHsnDTx9Mw9iNFudS5KPWyY_fPHM/

Read the free 350-401 dumps exam questions and answers online:

FromNumber of exam questionsAssociated certificationUpdate time
Lead4Pass15CCNP Enterprise, CCDAJune 20, 2023
New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables OSPF for area 0 interfaces to establish adjacency with a neighboring router with the same VRF?

ip vrf CCNP

rd 1:1 interface Ethernet1

ip vrf forwarding CCNP

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252! interface Ethernet2

ip vrf forwarding CCNP

ip address 10.2.2.2 255.2555.255.252

A. router ospf 1 vrf CCNP network 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 network 10.2.2.2 0.0.0.0 area 0

B. router ospf 1 interface Ethernet1 ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0 interface Ethernet2 ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0

C. router ospf 1 vrf CCNP interface Ethernet1 ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0 interface Ethernet2 ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0

D. router ospf 1 vrf CCNP network 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

Correct Answer: A

New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 2

Running the script causes the output in the exhibit. What should be the first line of the script?

A. from client import manager

B. import manager

C. from client import *

D. client manager import

Correct Answer: A

https://ncclient.readthedocs.io/en/latest/

Multiple examples are shown using “from client import manager” and then using manager. connect

New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 7

A network engineer must be notified when a user switches to configuration mode. Which script should be applied to receive an SNMP trap and a critical-level log message?

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 3-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

New Question 4:

The Gig0/0 interface of two routers is directly connected with a 1G Ethernet link. Which configuration must be applied to the interface of both routers to establish an OSPF adjacency without maintaining a DR/BDR relationship?

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 4

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

New Question 5:

How does Cisco TrustSec enable more flexible access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?

A. uses flexible NetFlow

B. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint

C. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition

D. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address

Correct Answer: D

The Cisco TrustSec solution simplifies the provisioning and management of network access control through the use of software-defined segmentation to classify network traffic and enforce policies for more flexible access controls. Traffic classification is based on endpoint identity, not IP address, enabling policy change without network redesign.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/identity-services-engine/at_a_glance_c45-726831.pdf

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure static NAT on R1 to allow users HTTP access to the web server on TCP port 80. The web server must be reachable through ISP 1 and ISP 2. Which command set should be applied to R1 to fulfill these requirements?

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 6

A. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 extendable ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80 extendable

B. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80

C. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 209.165.201.1 8080

D. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 no-alias ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80 no-alias

Correct Answer: A

the “extendable” keyword should be added if the same Inside Local is mapped to different Inside Global Addresses (the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the outside network). An example of this case is when you have two connections to the Internet on two ISPs for redundancy. So you will need to map two Inside Global IP addresses into one inside local IP address.

New Question 7:

CORRECT TEXT

BGP connectivity exists between Headquarters and both remote sites; however, Remote Site 1 cannot communicate with Remote Site 2. Configure BGP according to the topology to goals:

1.

Configure R1 and R3 under the BGP process to provide reachability between Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2. No configuration changes are permitted on R2.

2.

Ensure that the /32 networks at Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2 can ping each other.

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 7

R1

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 7-1
New 350-401 dumps exam questions 7-2

R3

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 7-3
New 350-401 dumps exam questions 7-4

A. See the solution below in Explanation-

B. Place Holder

C. Place Holder

D. Place Holder

Correct Answer: A

Solution:

On R1:

R1(config)#router bgp 123

R1(config-router)#address-family ipv4

R1(config-router-af)#neighbor 10.0.0.2 allowas-in

On R3:

R3(config)#router bgp 123

R3(config-router)# address-family ipv4

R3(config-router-af)#neighbor 192.168.1.2 allowas-in VERIFICATION:

R3#sh ip route bgp

Gateway of last resort is not set

1.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets

B 1.1.1.1 [20/0] via 192.168.1.2, 00:01:17

2.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets

B 2.2.2.2 [20/0] via 192.168.1.2, 00:05:06

10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets

B 10.0.0.0 [20/0] via 192.168.1.2, 00:01:17

Test Ping from R3 to R1:

R3#ping 1.1.1.1

Type escape sequence to abort.

Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 1.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds:

!!!!!

R3#ping 1.1.1.1 source lo0

Type escape sequence to abort.

Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 1.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds:

Packet sent with a source address of 3.3.3.3

!!!!!

Success rate is 100 percent (5/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 1/1/1 ms

New Question 8:

Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy?

A. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern \’UP\’ action 1.0 gets \’logging directly to console\’

B. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern \’UP\’ action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg \’log directly to console\’

C. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern \’UP\’ action 1.0 puts \’logging directly to console\’

D. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern \’UP\’ action 1.0 string \’logging directly to console\’

Correct Answer: C

“Writing Input to the Active Console When a synchronous policy is triggered, the related console is stored in the publish information specification. The policy director will query this information in an event_reqinfo call, and store the given console information for use by the action puts command.

The action puts command will write the string to the active console. A new line will be displayed unless the nonewline keyword is specified. The output from the action puts a command for a synchronous applet is displayed directly to the console, bypassing the system logger. The output of the action puts command for an asynchronous applet is directed to the system logger.”

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/eem/configuration/xe-3s/eem-xe-3s-book/eem-policy-cli.html

New Question 9:

Which network devices secure API platform?

A. next-generation intrusion detection systems

B. Layer 3 transit network devices

C. content switches

D. web application firewalls

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 10

An engineer must configure and validate a CoPP policy that allows the network management server to monitor router R1 via SNMP while protecting the control plane. Which two commands or command sets must be used? (Choose two.)

A. access-list 150 permit udp 10.0.1.4 0.0.0.0 host 10.0.1.2 eq snmp access-list 150 permit udp 10.0.1.4 0.0.0.0 eq snmp host 10.0.1.2 class-map match-all CoPP-management match access-group 150 policy-map CoPP-policy

class CoPP-management

police 8000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit

violate-action drop

control-plane

Service-policy input CoPP-policy

B. show ip interface brief

C. show quality-of-service-profile

D. access-list 150 permit udp 10.0.1.4 0.0.0.0 host 10.0.1.2 eq snmp class-map match-all CoPP-management match access-group 150 policy-map CoPP-policy class CoPP-management police 8000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit violate-action transmit control-plane Service-policy input CoPP-policy

E. show policy-map control-plane

Correct Answer: DE

A option has this ACL 150: access-list 150 permit udp 10.0.1.4 0.0.0.0 host 10.0.1.2 eq snmp access-list 150 permit udp 10.0.1.4 0.0.0.0 eq snmp host 10.0.1.2 But D option only: access-list 150 permit udp 10.0.1.4 0.0.0.0 host 10.0.1.2 eq snmp A option has a violation-action drop, but D option has a violation-action transmit the SNMP traffic will be never dropped

New Question 11:

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless network, which device is used as an entry and exit point in and out of the fabric?

A. fabric edge node

B. control plane node

C. fabric border node

D. fabric access points

Correct Answer: D

New Question 12:

In a Cisco VXLAN based network, which of the following best describes the main function of a VXLAN Tunnel Endpoint (VTEP)?

A. A device that performs VXLAN encapsulation and decapsulation.

B. It is a 24 bit segment ID that defines the broadcast domain.

C. It is the Logical interface where the encapsulation and de-encapsulation occurs.

D. It is a device that performs tunneling using GRE.

Correct Answer: A

VTEP (Virtual Tunnel Endpoint) – This is the device that does the encapsulation and de-encapsulation. reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-9000-series-switches/118978-config-vxlan-00.html

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 13

A. {[{\’First Name\’: \’Johnny\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Table\’, \’Hobbies\’: [\’Running\’, \’Video games\’]}, {\’First Name\’: \’Billy\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Smith\’, \’Hobbies\’: [\’Napping\’, \’Reading\’]}]}

B. {\’Person\’: [{\’First Name\’: \’Johnny\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Table\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Running\’, \’Video games\’}, {\’First Name\’: \’Billy\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Smith\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Napping\’, \’Reading\’}]}

C. {[{\’First Name\’: \’Johnny\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Table\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Running\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Video games\’}, {\’First Name\’: \’Billy\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Smith\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Napping\’, \’Reading\’}]}

D. {\’Person\’: [{\’First Name\’: \’Johnny\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Table\’, \’Hobbies\’: [\’Running\’, \’Video games\’]}, {\’First Name\’: \’Billy\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Smith\’, \’Hobbies\’: [\’Napping\’, \’Reading\’]}]}

Correct Answer: D

{

‘Person’:

[

{

‘First Name’: ‘Johnny’,

‘Last Name’: ‘Table’,

‘Hobbies’: [‘Running’, ‘Video games’]

},

{

‘First Name’: ‘Billy’,

‘Last Name’: ‘Smith’,

‘Hobbies’: [‘Napping’, ‘Reading’]

}

]

}

New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

New 350-401 dumps exam questions 14

Why does OSPF fail to establish an adjacency between R1 and R2?

A. authentication mismatch

B. interface MTU mismatch

C. area mismatch

D. timers mismatch

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

What does the statement print(format(0.8, \’.0%\’)) display?

A. 80%

B. 8%

C. .08%

D. 8.8%

Correct Answer: B

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timePrevious issue
13Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)Lead4PassNov 10, 2022Oct 08, 2022
QUESTION 1:

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients\’?

new 350-401 exam questions 1
new 350-401 exam questions 1-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2:

Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two.)

A. Increase minimum mandatory data rate

B. Reduce AP transmit power

C. Disable 2.4 GHz and use only 5 GHz.

D. Enable Fastlane.

E. Reduce channel width from 40 MHz to 20 MHz

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 exam questions 3

What are two results of the NAT configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Packets with a destination of 200.1.1.1 are translated to 10.1.1.1 or .2. respectively.
B. A packet that is sent to 200.1.1.1 from 10.1.1.1 is translated to 209.165.201.1 on R1.
C. R1 looks at the destination IP address of packets entering S0/0 and destined for inside hosts.
D. R1 processes packets entering E0/0 and S0/0 by examining the source IP address.
E. R1 is performing NAT for inside addresses and outside address.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4:

Which A record type should be configured for access points to resolve the IP address of a wireless LAN controller using DNS?

A. CISCO.CONTROLLER.localdomain
B. CISCO.CAPWAP.CONTROLLER.localdomain
C. CISCO-CONTROLLER.localdomain
D. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code construct a script that configure a loopback interface with an IP address (not all options are used)?

Select and Place:

new 350-401 exam questions 5

Correct Answer:

new 350-401 exam questions 5-1

QUESTION 6:

Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments In a VXLAN environment?

A. switch fabric
B. VTEP
C. VNID
D. host switch

Correct Answer: C

VXLAN uses an 8-byte VXLAN header that consists of a 24-bit VNID and a few reserved bits. The VXLAN
header together with the original Ethernet frame goes in the UDP payload. The 24-bit VNID is used to
identify Layer 2 segments and to maintain Layer 2 isolation between the segments.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7-x/vxlan/
configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x/
b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x_chapter_010.html

QUESTION 7:

How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

A. An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.

B. The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C. The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client

D. The client database on the original controller is updated the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8:

What is one primary REST security design principle?

A. fail-safe defaults
B. password hash
C. adding a timestamp in requests
D. OAuth

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-401 exam questions 9
new 350-401 exam questions 9-1

Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209 165 201 0/27 via BR1?

A. Set the weight attribute to 65.535 on BR1 toward PE1.
B. Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound
C. Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound.
D. Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10:

An engineer must protect the password for the VTY lines against over-the-shoulder attacks. Which configuration should be applied?

A. service password-ncryption
B. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMf8elb4RVV8$seZ/bDA
C. username netadmin secret 7$1$42J36k33008Pyh4QzwXyZ4
D. line vty 0 15 p3ssword XD822j

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?

A. logging buffer
B. service timestamps log uptime
C. logging host
D. terminal monitor

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right.

Select and Place:

new 350-401 exam questions 12

Correct Answer:

new q12-1

There are four messages sent between the DHCP Client and DHCP Server: DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER,
DHCPREQUEST and DHCPACKNOWLEDGEMENT. This process is often abbreviated as DORA (for Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledgement).

QUESTION 13:

A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent?

A. container
B. Type 1 hypervisor
C. hardware pass-thru
D. Type 2 hypervisor

Correct Answer: D

In contrast to type 1 hypervisor, a type 2 hypervisor (or hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an operating system and not the physical hardware directly. A big advantage of Type 2 hypervisors is that management console software is not required. Examples of type 2 hypervisor are VMware Workstation (which can run on Windows, Mac and Linux) or Microsoft Virtual PC (only runs on Windows).


Download the above free 350-401 exam questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/file/d/14FtbIb6_G2tGECN_fvyVIxB7I8VqpH8r/

[Update 2023]Free download of the new 350-401 PDF exam questions and answers:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1q7p7W7Uu6jiwLTE1K-eeAqUhYVjnXrJn/

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1jt2NnHsnDTx9Mw9iNFudS5KPWyY_fPHM/

The 350-401 ENCOR exam is the core exam for CCNP Enterprise, CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure, and CCIE Enterprise Wireless. Try using 350-401 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/350-401.html (dumps PDF + VCE) Help candidates successfully pass the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) certification exam for the first time.

Everything Important About the CCDA 200-901 Certification Exam

CCDA 200-901 Certification Exam

Summarize all important things about the CCDA (Cisco Certified DevNet Associate) 200-901 certification exam: 200-901 DEVASC certification value, exam plan, learning method, career planning, industry salary…

Whether you want to enter this industry or work hard for the next upgrade, you should clearly know all the relevant information of 200-901 certification, which will be explained one by one below:

CCDA 200-901 DEVASC Certification Value

The CCDA 200-901 DEVASC certification holds significant value in the IT industry. It validates your skills in network automation, software development, and infrastructure programmability. This certification is highly relevant in today’s technology landscape and opens up a range of career opportunities. It enhances your professional credibility, as it is recognized by Cisco, a leading networking company. Additionally, it connects you with a community of professionals passionate about network automation and programmability, providing opportunities for learning and collaboration. Overall, the CCDA 200-901 DEVASC certification is valuable for professionals looking to excel in the field of network automation and programmability.

CCDA 200-901 Exam Focus

The CCDA 200-901 exam focuses on evaluating your knowledge and skills in network automation, software development, and infrastructure programmability. It covers topics such as software development and design, understanding and using APIs, infrastructure and automation, network fundamentals, security fundamentals, and network programmability. The exam assesses your understanding of concepts related to network automation, programming interfaces, network infrastructure, security, and software development. By passing the exam, you demonstrate your proficiency in these areas, which are crucial in today’s evolving IT landscape.

200-901 Study Plan

Creating a study plan for the CCDA 200-901 exam is essential to effective preparation. Here are some of the most effective ways:

Gather Study Materials: Collect relevant study materials, such as textbooks, online courses, practice exams, and official Cisco resources. Utilize a mix of resources to cover all the exam topics comprehensively.

Create a Study Schedule: Design a study schedule that suits your needs and allows for regular and consistent study sessions. Allocate dedicated time slots for each exam topic and adhere to the schedule.

Learn and Practice Concepts: Start studying the exam topics one by one. Understand the concepts, theories, and best practices related to network automation, software development, and infrastructure programmability. Practice coding exercises, API interactions, and network automation scenarios.

Hands-on Lab Practice: Set up a lab environment to gain practical experience. Practice working with network devices, APIs, programming languages, and automation tools. Implement and troubleshoot network automation scenarios to reinforce your understanding.

Review and Reinforce: Regularly review the topics you have covered to reinforce your knowledge. Use flashcards, summaries, and review questions to aid in retention. Identify weak areas and focus additional study efforts on those topics.

Take Practice Exams: Utilize practice exams to assess your readiness and identify areas for improvement. Simulate the exam environment and time yourself to gauge your performance. Analyze the questions you answered incorrectly to fill knowledge gaps.

Engage in Discussion and Collaboration: Join study groups or online forums where you can engage in discussions with fellow exam takers. Share knowledge, clarify doubts, and learn from others’ experiences. Collaboration can enhance your understanding and provide valuable insights.

Exam Day Preparation: Prioritize a good night’s sleep before the exam day. Review key concepts and exam strategies. Double-check your exam logistics, such as location and required identification. Arrive early and approach the exam with confidence.

Remember to adjust the study plan according to your learning style and preferences. Stay motivated, maintain a positive mindset, and track your progress throughout the study journey.

CCDA 200-901 practice questions online experience

FromNumber of exam questionsExam codeExam nameLast updated
Lead4Pass.com13200-901Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)200-901 dumps
QUESTION 1:

Which platform is used to programmatically create space and invite users for collaboration?

A. Cisco Intersight

B. Cisco Finesse

C. Cisco Webex

D. Cisco UCM

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

Which Cisco platform is used to manage data center infrastructure through third-party tools and system integrations?

A. Cisco DNA Center

B. Cisco UCS Manager

C. Cisco Intersight

D. Cisco UCS Director

Correct Answer: C

“Cisco Intersight infrastructure services include the deployment, monitoring, management, and support of your physical and virtual infrastructure…In addition, Cisco provides integrations to third-party operations tools, starting with ServiceNow, to allow customers to use their existing solutions more efficiently.”

Reference: https://intersight.com/help/saas/getting_started/overview

QUESTION 3:

How are load balancers used in modern application deployments?

A. Turn off traffic and take down compute units, then update and bring the compute units back up.

B. Allow traffic to continue as new compute units are brought up and old compute units are taken down.

C. Allow HTTP and HTTPS traffic to continue as old compute units are discontinued before new units are brought up.

D. Bring up new compute units, test the compute units, and switch the traffic from old units to new units.

Correct Answer: B

From DEVASC training:

Applications need to be available 24 hours every day. A successful web application should be able to handle ingress traffic even when the number of users drastically rises and be able to support any amount of traffic.

For example, if your web page loads in a couple of seconds with 100,000 users a month, it should be able to load within the same time even with double or triple the amount of users.

QUESTION 4:

What are the two key capabilities of Cisco Finesse? (Choose two.)

A. Agents access Finesse from a browser without needing to install or configure anything on the client machine.

B. An OpenDNS utility is preconfigured and ready to use on Finesse.

C. Gadget containers provide a seamless experience in a single-user interface.

D. Finesse automatically collects telemetry data.

E. Finesse includes an RPC API that enables the development of custom gadgets.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5:

What is the benefit of version control?

A. prevents two users from working on the same file

B. keeps track of all changes to the files

C. prevents the sharing of files

D. keeps the list of data types used in the files

Correct Answer: B

https://www.atlassian.com/git/tutorials/what-is-version-control#:~:text=non%2Dsoftware%20projects.-,Benefits%20of%2
0version%20control%20systems,scales%20to%20include%20more%20developers
.

QUESTION 6:

A developer is working on a new feature in a branch named \’newfeat123456789\’ and the current working primary branch is named \’prim987654321\’. The developer requires a merge commit during a fast-forward merge for record-keeping purposes. Which Git command must be used?

A. git merge –no-ff newfeat123456789

B. git commit –no-ff newfeat123456789

C. git add –commit-ff newfeat123456789

D. git reset –commit-ff newfeat123456789

Correct Answer: A

In the event that you require a merge commit during a fast-forward merge for record-keeping purposes, you can execute git merge with the –no-ff option.

This command merges the specified branch into the current branch but always generates a merge commit (even if it was a fast-forward merge). This is useful for documenting all merges that occur in your repository.

Source: https://www.atlassian.com/git/tutorials/using-branches/git-merge

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit. A developer cannot reach the web application behind an NGINX load balancer. The developer sends a request to an application FQDN with cURL but gets an HTTP 502 response. Which action solves the problem?

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 7

A. Fix errors in the server configuration, which is behind the load balancer.

B. Bring up the load balancer to the active state.

C. Fix errors in the cURL request sent by the client.

D. Change the default gateway on the load balancer to an active one.

Correct Answer: A

The HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) 502 Bad Gateway server error response code indicates that the server while acting as a gateway or proxy, received an invalid response from the upstream server.

https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/HTTP/Status/502#:~:text=The%20HyperText%20Transfer%20Protocol%20(HTTP,response%20from%20the%20upstream%20server

QUESTION 8:

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 8

Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to construct a request to find the Cisco DNA Center switch count. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 8-1

Correct Answer:

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 8-2

QUESTION 9:

Why is refactoring done during test-driven development?

A. to enable larger objects and longer methods

B. to improve maintainability and readability

C. to ensure that the previous uses of the objects are explained

D. to ensure the duplication of essential code

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the types of management from the left onto the levels at which they are performed on the right.

Select and Place:

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 10

Correct Answer:

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 10-1

QUESTION 11:

Refer to the exhibits.

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 11
latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 11-1

The Python interpreter and the Cisco Python SDK are available by default in the Cisco NX-OS Software. The SDK documentation shows how the clid() API can be used when working with JSON and XML. What are the two effects of running the script? (Choose two.)

A. configure interface loopback 5

B. show details for the TABLE interface

C. issue shutdown on interface loopback 5

D. show only the interfaces in the up status

E. show only the interfaces in admin shut status

Correct Answer: AD

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7-x/programmability/guide/
b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX-OS_Programmability_Guide_7x/Python_API.html

QUESTION 12:

FILL BLANK

Fill in the blanks to complete the cURL command that invokes a RESTful API to retrieve a resource in JSON format using OAuth.

curl –X _ -H “ ___: application/json” \
-H “ _: Bearer AbCdEf123456” https://localhost/api/myresource

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 12

A. Check the answer in the explanation.

Correct Answer: A

GET Accept Authorization

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 12-1

Reference: https://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:Se6d2trvMsEJ

https://blogs.cisco.com/developer/
security-api-best-practices+andcd=4andhl=enandct=clnkandgl=pkandclient=firefox-b-d

QUESTION 13:

When a Cisco IOS XE networking device is configured by using RESTCONF, what is the default data encoding method?

A. application/yaml-data+json

B. application/yang-data+json

C. application/xml-data+json

D. application/json-data+xml

Correct Answer: B

RESTCONF is an HTTP-based protocol that uses the REST architectural style to enable the manipulation of data on a network device. It is designed to work with data models defined using the YANG data modeling language, and the default data encoding method for RESTCONF is application/yang-data+json.

PS. Download the above exam questions and answers online: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1VjHQkXoBNHroOifzwTA8ldtB0koUKf_G/view?usp=share_link

Download the 443 most recent 200-901 exam questions and answers: https://www.leads4pass.com/200-901.html (200-901 dumps)

Salary & jobs

Salary:

On average, professionals holding the Cisco 200-901 certification can expect to earn a competitive salary. According to PayScale, the average annual salary for professionals with the Cisco Certified DevNet Associate certification (which encompasses the 200-901 exam) ranges from approximately $60,000 to $120,000. However, these figures are approximate and can differ based on individual circumstances.

Factors such as years of experience, job responsibilities, geographic location, and the demand for network automation and software development skills in the specific job market can significantly impact salary ranges. It is advisable to research industry-specific salary data and consult job market trends to gain a better understanding of the potential earning potential associated with the Cisco 200-901 certification in your particular area of interest or expertise.

Jobs:

Here are some examples of jobs that certification can qualify you for:

Network Automation Engineer: With the Cisco 200-901 certification, you can pursue a career as a network automation engineer. In this role, you will focus on automating network tasks, developing scripts and tools, and implementing software-defined networking (SDN) solutions.

Software Developer: The certification equips you with software development skills, making you eligible for software developer roles. You can work on developing applications, APIs, and software solutions that integrate with network infrastructure.

Network Architect: As a Cisco 200-901 certified professional, you can qualify for network architect positions. In this role, you will design and plan network infrastructures, ensuring they align with business requirements and incorporate automation and programmability.

DevOps Engineer: The certification prepares you for roles as a DevOps engineer. DevOps engineers focus on streamlining software development and deployment processes, utilizing automation tools, and integrating development and operations practices.

Network Administrator: The Cisco 200-901 certification provides a strong foundation in network fundamentals, making you eligible for network administrator roles. In this position, you will be responsible for managing and maintaining network infrastructure, ensuring its efficient and secure operation.

Network Support Engineer: With the certification, you can pursue roles as a network support engineer. This involves troubleshooting network issues, providing technical support to end users, and ensuring network availability and performance.

Technical Consultant: The Cisco 200-901 certification qualifies you for technical consultant roles. As a technical consultant, you will provide expertise and guidance to clients or internal teams on implementing network automation, programmability, and software development best practices.

These are just a few examples of the job roles that the Cisco 200-901 certification can qualify you for. The certification prepares you to work at the intersection of networking and software development, enabling you to contribute to network automation, infrastructure programmability, and modern network architectures.

Summarize

This article provides you with the overall planning process for the CCDA 200-901 certification exam, as well as the solution to pass the 200-901 exam (https://www.leads4pass.com/200-901.html), and good luck!

Latest Lead4Pass CCDP/CCDE 350-901 Dumps with VCE and PDF & Online Practice

CCDP/CCDE 350-901 Dumps with VCE and PDF

Lead4Pass has released the latest CCDP(“Cisco Certified DevNet Professional”)/CCDE(“Cisco Certified DevNet Expert”) 350-901 exam dumps, including 359 exam questions and answers, and all difficult problems analysis!

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Online Practice – Part of Lead4Pass 350-901 dumps:

TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam codeVerify answer
Free15Developing Applications Using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR)350-901View
Question 1:

Which transport layer protocol does gRPC use to retrieve telemetry information?

A. SSH

B. SNMP

C. TCP

D. HTTP/2


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Click on the resource tab in the top left comer to view resources to help with this question.

An engineer is managing a data center with 6000 Cisco UCS servers installed and running The engineer is asked to identify all resources where the model is in the UCSB family and the available memory is less than or equal to 5 GB Drag

and drop the code from the bottom onto the blanks in the code snippet to construct a REST API call to accomplish this task. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

350-901 dumps questions 2

Correct Answer:

350-901 dumps questions 2-1

Question 3:
350-901 dumps questions 3

Refer to the exhibits. An interface named “GigabitEthernet2” has been configured on a Cisco IOS XE device. Using RESTCONF APIs as defined by the ietf-interfaces@2014-05- 08. yang model, two combinations of “rest_operation” and “payload” must be added to the Python script to set the “description” to “Configured by RESTCONF”? (Choose two.)

350-901 dumps questions 3-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibits which show the documentation associated with the create port object API call in Cisco Firepower Threat Defense, and a cURL command. Which data payload completes the cURL command to run the API call?

350-901 dumps questions 4

A. B. C. D.

Reference : https://developer.cisco.com/site/ftd-api- reference/#!editicmpv4portobject/path-parameters


Question 5:

Which two types of storage are supported for app hosting on a Cisco Catalyst 9000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)

A. external USB storage

B. internal SSD

C. CD-ROM

D. SD-card

E. bootflash


Question 6:

DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.

350-901 dumps questions 6

Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing to complete the API request. An engineer is using this API request to implement Chat-Ops to generate notifications m a Webex space by using webhooks. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

350-901 dumps questions 6-1

Correct Answer:

350-901 dumps questions 6-2

Question 7:

A team of developers created their own CA and started signing certificates for all of their loT devices. Which action will make the browser accept these certificates?

A. Set the private keys to 1024-bit RSA.

B. Preload the developer CA on the trusted CA list of the browser.

C. Enable HTTPS or port 443 on the browser.

D. install a TLS instead of an SSL certificate on the loT devices.


Question 8:

A developer is working on an enhancement for an application feature and has made changes to a branch called `decor-432436127a-enhance4`. When merging the branch to production, conflicts occurred. Which Git command must the developer use to recreate the pre-merge state?

A. git merge -no-edit

B. git merge -abort

C. git merge -revert

D. git merge –commit

Explanation: This command will recreate the pre-merge state, reverting any changes made to the branch before the merge.


Question 9:

What is the benefit of continuous testing?

A. decreases the frequency of code check-ins

B. removes the requirement for test environments

C. enables parallel testing

D. increases the number of bugs found in production


Question 10:

An enterprise refactors its monolithic application into a modem cloud-native application that is based on microservices. A key requirement of the application design is to ensure that the IT team is aware of performance issues or bottlenecks in

the new application.

Which two approaches must be part of the design considerations\’\’ (Choose two.)

A. Periodically scale up the resources of the host machines when the application starts to experience high loads

B. Instrument the application code to gather telemetry data from logs, metrics or tracing

C. Adopt a service-oriented architecture to handle communication between the services that make up the application

D. Deploy infrastructure monitoring agents into the operating system of the host machines

E. Implement infrastructure monitoring to ensure that pipeline components interoperate smoothly and reliably


Question 11:

Users report that they are no longer able to process transactions with the online ordering application, and the logging dashboard is displaying these messages: Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.123 ESI 2020 [FRONTEND] [NFO: Incoming request to add the item to cart from user 45834534858 Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.247 EST 2020 [BACKEND] INFO: Attempting to add the item to cart Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.250 EST 2020 [BACKEND] ERROR: Failed to add an item: MYSQLDB ERROR: Connection refused What is causing the problem seen in these log messages?

A. The database server container has crashed.

B. The backend process is overwhelmed with too many transactions.

C. The backend is not authorized to commit to the database.

D. The user is not authorized to add the item to their cart.


Question 12:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing to stop the REST API requests if a \’Too Many Requests” response is received. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

350-901 dumps questions 12

Correct Answer:

350-901 dumps questions 12-1

Question 13:

Which two methods are API security best practices? (Choose two.)

A. Use tokens after the identity of a client has been established.

B. Use the same operating system throughout the infrastructure.

C. Use encryption and signatures to secure data.

D. Use basic auth credentials for overall internal API interactions.

E. Use cloud hosting services to manage security configuration.


Question 14:

Where must the data be encrypted to ensure end-to-end encryption when using an API?

A. on the device that consumes the API

B. on the source device before transmission

C. on the end device after a request is received

D. on the server that stores the data


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-901 dumps questions 15

An Intersight API is being used to query RackUnit resources that have a tag keyword set to “Site”. What is the expected output of this command?

A. list of all resources that have a tag with the keyword “Site”

B. error message because the Value field was not specified

C. error message because the tag filter should be lowercase

D. a list of all sites that contain RackUnit tagged compute resources


Verify answer:

Number:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:DIMAGEABCABIMAGEBBCBEAIMAGEACAA

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Lead4Pass 300-720 dumps Last Update 2023

The latest updated Lead4Pass 300-720 dumps for 2023: https://www.leads4pass.com/300-720.html, contains 94 real exam questions and answers, verified by a professional team, to help you pass the 300-720 SESA certification exam.

Passing the Cisco 300-720 exam is not that simple, you need to go through a lot of practice and preparation before the exam to be really successful, use Lead4Pass 300-720 dumps with PDF and VCE to help you complete all the exercises. Then Use ChatGPT to find out more preparation details, and you can accomplish your goals without fail.

ChatGPT tells you Cisco 300-720 certification exam details:

The Cisco 300-720 exam, also known as the Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA) exam, is a certification exam that tests your knowledge and skills in securing email communication with the use of the Cisco Email Security Appliance.

The exam consists of 60-70 questions and lasts for 90 minutes.
The questions are presented in various formats, including multiple-choice, drag-and-drop, and simulation questions. The exam is available in English and Japanese.

The topics covered in the exam include:

1. Secure Email Gateway Architecture and Features

2. Cisco Email Security Appliance Installation and Configuration

3. Message Filtering

4. Email Encryption

5. System Administration and Troubleshooting

The exam can be taken at any Pearson VUE testing center, and the cost of the exam is $300 USD.
To prepare for the exam, Cisco offers a range of resources, including self-paced e-learning courses, instructor-led training courses, and study groups.

Practice the latest Cisco 300-720 exam questions from Lead4Pass

TypeNumber of exam questionsExam CodeExam NameLast UpdatedExam Answers
Free15300-720Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA)300-720 dumpsView
Question 1:

Which suboption must be selected when LDAP is configured for Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication?

A. Designate as the active query

B. Update Frequency

C. Server Priority

D. Entity ID

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/security_management/sma/sma11-5/user_guide/b_SMA_Admin_Guide_11_5/b_SMA_Admin_Guide_11_5_chapter_01010.html

Question 2:

What are the two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject

B. work queue

C. action

D. delivery

E. quarantine

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-1/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_1/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_1_chapter_011.pdf (p.1)

Question 3:

A Cisco ESA administrator has several mail policies configured. While testing policy matches using a specific sender, the email was not matching the expected policy. What is the reason for this?

A. The “From” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.

B. The message header with the highest priority is checked against each policy in a top-down fashion.

C. The “To” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.

D. The message header with the highest priority is checked against the Default policy in a top-down fashion.

Question 4:

Which action must be taken before a custom quarantine that is being used can be deleted?

A. Delete the quarantine that is assigned to a filter.

B. Delete the quarantine that is not assigned to a filter.

C. Delete only the unused quarantine.

D. Remove the quarantine from the message action of a filter.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011111.html

Question 5:

Which global setting is configured under Cisco ESA Scan Behavior?

A. minimum attachment size to scan

B. attachment scanning timeout

C. actions for unscannable messages due to attachment type

D. minimum depth of attachment recursion to scan

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/email-security/cisco-ironport-esa-security-services-scan-behavior-impact-on-av/td-p/3923243

Question 6:

Which two are configured in the DMARC verification profile? (Choose two.)

A. the name of the verification profile

B. the minimum number of signatures to verify

C. ESA listeners to use the verification profile

D. message action into an incoming or outgoing content filter

E. message action to take when the policy is reject/quarantine

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_010101.html#task_1231917

Question 7:

A Cisco ESA administrator has noticed that new messages being sent to the Centralized Policy Quarantine are being released after one hour. Previously, they were held for a day before being released. What was configured that caused this to occur?

A. The retention period was changed to one hour.

B. The threshold settings were set to override the clock settings.

C. The retention period was set to default.

D. The threshold settings were set to default.

Question 8:

Which two actions are configured on the Cisco ESA to query LDAP servers? (Choose two.)

A. accept

B. relay

C. delay

D. route

E. reject

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa11-0/user_guide_fs/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_011010.html

Question 9:

Which two configurations are used on multiple LDAP servers to connect with Cisco ESA? (Choose two.)

A. load balancing

B. SLA monitor

C. active-standby

D. failover

E. active-active

You can enter multiple host names to configure the LDAP servers for failover or load-balancing. Separate multiple entries with commas.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ces/user_guide/sma_user_guide/b_SMA_Admin_Guide_ces_11/b_SMA_Admin_Guide_chapter_01010.html

Question 10:

Which two action types are performed by Cisco ESA message filters? (Choose two.)

A. non-final actions

B. filter actions

C. discard actions

D. final actions

E. quarantine actions

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa11-1/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_1/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_01000.html

Question 11:

What is the benefit of implementing URL filtering on the Cisco ESA?

A. removes threats from malicious URLs

B. blacklists spam

C. provides URL reputation protection

D. enhances reputation against malicious URLs

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118775-technote-esa-00.html

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to connect to a Cisco ESA using SSH and has been unsuccessful. Upon further inspection, the engineer notices that there is a loss of connectivity to the neighboring switch.

latest 300-720 questions 12

Which connection method should be used to determine the configuration issue?

A. Telnet

B. HTTPS

C. Ethernet

D. serial

Question 13:

Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.)

A. The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters.

B. Message filter configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters.

C. The filter config command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters.

D. Message filters can be configured only from the CLI.

E. Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/213940-esa-using-a-message-filter-to-take-act.html

Question 14:

Which two factors must be considered when message filter processing is configured? (Choose two.)

A. message-filter order

B. lateral processing

C. structure of the combined packet

D. mail policies

E. MIME structure of the message

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_01000.html

Question 15:

What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies?

A. message splintering

B. message exceptions

C. message detachment

D. message aggregation

View answer:

QuestionsQ1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
AnswersABDDDBAEDADADADCDADAEA

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ChatGPT tells you the value of Cisco 300-720 SESA certification

Cisco 300-720 SESA (Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance) certification is designed for professionals who want to specialize in email security.

It validates the knowledge and skills required to configure, manage, and troubleshoot Cisco Email Security Appliances, as well as to implement email security solutions.

The value of Cisco 300-720 SESA certification is that it provides the following benefits:

1. Expertise in Email Security: This certification demonstrates that you have expertise in email security, including threat protection, email encryption, and email filtering. It also validates your ability to configure, manage, and troubleshoot Cisco Email Security Appliances.

2. Career Opportunities: This certification enhances your career opportunities by validating your expertise in email security. It can open up new job opportunities and increase your earning potential.

3. Recognition: Cisco is a well-known and respected brand in the IT industry, and earning a Cisco certification demonstrates your commitment to your profession and your dedication to staying up-to-date with the latest technologies and best practices.

4. Competitive Advantage: Cisco 300-720 SESA certification provides a competitive advantage over non-certified professionals. It demonstrates your commitment to your profession and your willingness to invest in your career development.

5. Professional Growth: This certification also provides opportunities for professional growth by providing access to training, resources, and networking opportunities with other Cisco-certified professionals.

In summary, Cisco 300-720 SESA certification validates your expertise in email security, enhances your career opportunities, provides recognition and competitive advantage, and supports your professional growth.

CyberOps Professional 350-201 Exam Experience Sharing

The most valuable experience provided by multiple successful CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam candidates, sharing how to successfully pass this exam.

This article uses ChatGPT to answer all the questions that CyberOps Professional 350-201 Certification candidates care about. It is really smart and helps us save more time and provide the most accurate and effective answers. And the latest useful ones provided by Lead4Pass certification exam questions and answers,Really help the follow-up people to pass the exam successfully.

Is the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam difficult?

Is the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam difficult?

The difficulty level of the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam can vary from person to person and depends on factors such as their prior experience and knowledge in the field, preparation time, and study habits. However, in general, the 350-201 exam is considered to be a challenging certification exam that tests a candidate’s ability to understand and apply complex cybersecurity concepts.

It is recommended to have hands-on experience and a thorough understanding of the exam content and format before taking the exam.

Best Ways to Take the CyberOps Professional 350-201 Certification Exam

Best Ways to Take the CyberOps Professional 350-201 Certification Exam

To prepare for the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam, here are some best practices:

1. Study the exam objectives and familiarize yourself with the exam format and content.

2. Use Cisco’s official course materials and study resources, such as the “Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)” course and the Cisco CyberOps Associate certification exam guide.

3. Practical experience with the relevant technology is essential. Consider setting up a lab environment or using a simulation tool for practice. Welcome to Lead4Pass 350-201 Dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/350-201.html which includes PDF study files and VCE practice exam tools to help you study for success with ease.

4. Join study groups or online forums to collaborate with others and discuss questions and best practices.

5. Regularly take practice exams to gauge your understanding of the material and identify areas where you need more study.

6. Stay current with industry developments and updates by regularly reading relevant blogs, whitepapers, and other resources.

Remember, the more you practice, the better prepared you’ll be for the exam. Good luck!

What are the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam details

What are the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam details?

1. The Cisco CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam is a 120-minute, 65-75 multiple choice, and simulation-based test.

2. The exam is designed to measure the candidate’s ability to understand, analyze and respond to security threats in a complex network environment.

3. The topics covered in the exam include security concepts, security monitoring, security incidents, analysis, and response procedures.

4. The minimum passing score for the exam is not publicly disclosed by Cisco.

5. The exam is available in English and Japanese languages and can be taken at any Cisco-authorized testing center or online through the Pearson VUE platform.

CyberOps Professional 350-201 Online Practice

TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam codeExam answers
Free15Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR)350-201View
Question 1:

A company\’s web server availability was breached by a DDoS attack and was offline for 3 hours because it was not deemed a critical asset in the incident response playbook. Leadership has requested a risk assessment of the asset. An analyst conducted the risk assessment using the threat sources, events, and vulnerabilities.

Which additional element is needed to calculate the risk?

A. assessment scope

B. event severity and likelihood

C. incident response playbook

D. risk model framework


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

350-201 questions 2

Correct Answer:

350-201 questions 2-1

Question 3:

A Mac laptop user notices that several files have disappeared from their laptop documents folder. While looking for the files, the user notices that the browser history was recently cleared. The user raises a case, and an analyst reviews the network usage and discovers that it is abnormally high.

Which step should be taken to continue the investigation?

A. Run the sudo sys diagnose command

B. Run the sh command

C. Run the w command

D. Run the who command

Reference: https://eclecticlight.co/2016/02/06/the-ultimate-diagnostic-tool-sysdiagnose/


Question 4:

An engineer receives an incident ticket with hundreds of intrusion alerts that require investigation. An analysis of the incident log shows that the alerts are from trusted IP addresses and internal devices. The final incident report stated that these alerts were false positives and that no intrusions were detected.

What action should be taken to harden the network?

A. Move the IPS to after the firewall facing the internal network

B. Move the IPS to before the firewall facing the outside network

C. Configure the proxy service on the IPS

D. Configure reverse port forwarding on the IPS


Question 5:
350-201 questions 5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps mitigate attacks on the webserver from the Internet? (Choose two.)

A. Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only TLS 1.3

B. Implement a proxy server in the DMZ network

C. Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only external connections

D. Move the webserver to the internal network


Question 6:

An organization had an incident with the network availability during which devices unexpectedly malfunctioned. An engineer is investigating the incident and found that the memory pool buffer usage reached a peak before the malfunction. Which action should the engineer take to prevent this issue from reoccurring?

A. Disable memory limit.

B. Disable CPU threshold trap toward the SNMP server.

C. Enable memory tracking notifications.

D. Enable memory threshold notifications.


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing static analysis of a file received and reported by a user. Which risk is indicated in this STIX?

350-201 questions 7

A. The file is redirecting users to a website that requests privilege escalations from the user.

B. The file is redirecting users to the website that is downloading ransomware to encrypt files.

C. The file is redirecting users to a website that harvests cookies and stored account information.

D. The file redirects users to a website that is determining users’ geographic location.


Question 8:

An analyst is alerted for a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware. Which tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?

A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu

B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu

C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu

D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu


Question 9:

An analyst received multiple alerts on the SIEM console of users that are navigating to malicious URLs. The analyst needs to automate the task of receiving alerts and processing the data for further investigations. Three variables are available from the SIEM console to include in an automation script: console_ip, api_token, and reference_set_name. What must be added to this script to receive a successful HTTP response?

#!/usr/bin/pythonimport sysimport requests

A. {1}, {2}

B. {1}, {3}

C. console_ip, api_token

D. console_ip, reference_set_name


Question 10:

A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching?

A. Identify the business applications running on the assets

B. Update software to patch third-party software

C. Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit

D. Fix applications according to the risk scores


Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the function on the left onto the mechanism on the right.

Select and Place:

350-201 questions 11

Correct Answer:

350-201 questions 11-1

Question 12:

A security architect is working in a processing center and must implement a DLP solution to detect and prevent any type of copy-and-paste attempts of sensitive data within unapproved applications and removable devices. Which technical architecture must be used?

A. DLP for data in motion

B. DLP for removable data

C. DLP for data in use

D. DLP for data at rest

Reference: https://www.endpointprotector.com/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp/


Question 13:
350-201 questions 13

Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script?

A. Seeds for existing domains are checked

B. A search is conducted for additional seeds

C. Domains are compared to seed rules

D. A list of domains as seeds is blocked


Question 14:

What is needed to assess risk mitigation effectiveness in an organization?

A. analysis of key performance indicators

B. compliance with security standards

C. cost-effectiveness of control measures

D. an updated list of vulnerable systems


Question 15:

Patient views information that is not theirs when they sign in to the hospital\’s online portal. The patient calls the support center at the hospital but continues to be put on hold because other patients are experiencing the same issue. An incident has been declared, and an engineer is now on the incident bridge as the CyberOps Tier 3 Analyst. There is a concern about the disclosure of PII occurring in real time.

What is the first step the analyst should take to address this incident?

A. Evaluate visibility tools to determine if external access resulted in tampering

B. Contact the third-party handling provider to respond to the incident as critical

C. Turn off all access to the patient portal to secure patient records

D. Review system and application logs to identify errors in the postal code

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CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam answers

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7. Possibility of increased responsibilities and opportunities for professional growth.

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Take the Cisco 200-901 dumps exam questions online practice test:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease time
15Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)Lead4PassSep 30, 2022
New Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Check answer >>

New Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command line is driven interface

Check answer >>

New Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Check answer >>

New Question 4:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Check answer >>

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco 200-901 dumps exam q5

What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?

Cisco 200-901 dumps exam q5-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Check answer >>

New Question 6:

What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?

A. MAC address

B. IPv6 address

C. spanning tree

D. IPv4 address

Check answer >>

New Question 7:

Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “communication administratively prohibited”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.

B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.

C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus drops traffic.

D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.

Check answer >>

New Question 8:

What is an advantage of a version control system?

A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code

B. ensures that unit tests are written

C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files

D. forces the practice of trunk-based development

Check answer >>

New Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco 200-901 dumps exam q9

What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?

A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

Check answer >>

New Question 10:

A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?

A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.

B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.

C. The server accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.

D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.

Check answer >>

New Question 11:

What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements the desired function.

B. Write a failing test case for the desired function.

C. Reverse engineer the code for the desired function.

D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Check answer >>

New Question 12:

What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?

A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively

B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application

C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address

D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application

Check answer >>

New Question 13:

A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)

A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.

B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.

C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.

D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.

E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.

Check answer >>

New Question 14:

What operation is performed with YANG model-driven programmability in NX-OS?

A. configure a device with native and OpenConfig-based models

B. bootstrap a device that has a factory-default configuration

C. send CLI commands to a device and retrieve output in JSON format

D. run Linux commands natively on the device

Check answer >>

New Question 15:

What is the function of an IP address in networking?

A. represents a network connection on specific devices

B. specifies the type of traffic that is allowed to roam on a network

C. specifies the resource\’s location and the mechanism to retrieve it

D. represents the unique ID that is assigned to one host on a network

Check answer >>

Verify the answer:

Number:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answer:CACCBDAAADBBBABAD

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New Question 1:

What is the correct IPv6 address notation?

A. 2001:0DB8::/128

B. 2001:0DB8:0::

C. 2001:0DB8::1:1:1:1:1

D. 2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B

Correct Answer: D


New Question 2:

Which two statements about Telnet and SSH are true? (Choose two.)

A. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.

B. SSH uses the well-known TCP port 23 for its communication.

C. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.

D. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.

E. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 3:

Which address facilitates the routing of packets over an IP network?

A. physical

B. transport

C. network

D. MAC

Correct Answer: C


New Question 4:

Which two IPv4 addresses can be assigned to a host computer? (Choose two.)

A. 255.255.255.255

B. 10.1.1.20

C. 0.0.0.0

D. 192.168.10.15

E. 292.10.3.4

Correct Answer: BD


New Question 5:

Which device is a DTE device?

A. CSU/DSU

B. router

C. cable modem

D. DSL modem

Correct Answer: B


New Question 6:

Which layer of the OSI model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?

A. presentation

B. data link

C. network

D. transport

Correct Answer: B


New Question 7:

Which command shows the status of power supplies and sensor temperatures?

A. show hardware

B. show module

C. show environment

D. show diag

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/m/en_us/techdoc/dc/reference/cli/n5k/commands/show-environment.html


New Question 8:

What are two standard fiber-optic connectors? (Choose two.)

A. Lucent

B. rollover

C. subscriber

D. multidimension

E. crossover

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 9:

Which two pairs of LAN Ethernet devices use an RJ-45 straight-through cable? (Choose two.)

A. switch-to-switch

B. switch-to-router

C. switch-to-hub

D. router-to-router

E. switch-to-server

Correct Answer: BE


New Question 10:

Which two features are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

A. consists of a single strand of glass fiber

B. has higher attenuation that multimode fiber

C. carries a higher bandwidth that multimode fiber

D. costs less than multimode fiber

E. operates over less distance than multimode fiber

Correct Answer: AC


New Question 11:

Which type of transceiver module is used for 40 Gigabit Ethernet connectivity?

A. SFP+

B. GBIC

C. QSFP+

D. XFP

Correct Answer: C


New Question 12:

What is the line speed of a DS0 in North America?

A. 16 kbps

B. 32 kbps

C. 64 kbps

D. 128 kbps

Correct Answer: C


New Question 13:

Which two statements about a SmartJack are true? (Choose two.)

A. It provides signal conversion.

B. It acts as a concentration point for dial-in and dial-out connections.

C. It operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.

D. It provides channel testing.

E. It regenerates the signal to compensate for signal degradation from line transmission.

Correct Answer: AE


New Question 14:

The pins on an RJ-45 cable plug are numbered from 1 through 8. When the metal pins of the plug are facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets of pins are looped on an RJ-45 56K loopback plug? (Choose two.)

A. pins 2 and 7

B. pins 2 and 8

C. pins 2 and 5

D. pins 1 and 7

E. pins 1 and 4

Correct Answer: CE


New Question 15:

Which type of memory is used to permanently store Cisco IOS Software?

A. NVRAM

B. flash

C. SRAM

D. DRAM

Correct Answer: A

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New Question 1:

Which SMTP extension does Cisco ESA support for email security?

A. ETRN

B. UTF8SMTP

C. PIPELINING

D. STARTTLS

View Answer


New Question 2:

Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting into the Cisco ESA?

A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering

B. Connection Reputation Filtering

C. Talos Reputation Filtering

D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering

View Answer


New Question 3:

Which benefit does enabling external spam quarantine on Cisco SMA provide?

A. ability to back up spam quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console

B. access to the spam quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete

C. ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate

D. ability to consolidate spam quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESA to one central console

View Answer


New Question 4:

When email authentication is configured on Cisco ESA, which two key types should be selected on the signing profile? (Choose two.)

A. DKIM

B. Public Keys

C. Domain Keys

D. Symmetric Keys

E. Private Keys

View Answer


New Question 5:

What are two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject

B. workqueue

C. action

D. delivery

E. quarantine

View Answer


New Question 6:

Which two action types are performed by Cisco ESA message filters? (Choose two.)

A. non-final actions

B. filter actions

C. discard actions

D. final actions

E. quarantine actions

View Answer


New Question 7:

Which setting affects the aggressiveness of spam detection?

A. protection level

B. spam threshold

C. spam timeout

D. maximum depth of recursion scan

View Answer


New Question 8:

What is the order of virus scanning when multilayer antivirus scanning is configured?

A. The default engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

B. The Sophos engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

C. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the default engine scans for viruses second.

D. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the Sophos engine scans for viruses second.

View Answer

If you configure multi-layer anti-virus scanning, the Cisco appliance performs virus scanning with the McAfee engine first and the Sophos engine second. It scans messages using both engines, unless the McAfee engine detects a virus. If the McAfee engine detects a virus, the Cisco appliance performs the anti-virus actions (repairing, quarantining, etc.) defined for the mail policy.


New Question 9:

What are two prerequisites for implementing undesirable URL protection in Cisco ESA? (Choose two.)

A. Enable outbreak filters.

B. Enable email relay.

C. Enable antispam scanning.

D. Enable port bouncing.

E. Enable antivirus scanning.

View Answer


New Question 10:

Which suboption must be selected when LDAP is configured for Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication?

A. Designate as the active query

B. Update Frequency

C. Server Priority

D. Entity ID

View Answer


New Question 11:

What is the maximum message size that can be configured for encryption on the Cisco ESA?

A. 20 MB

B. 25 MB

C. 15 MB

D. 30 MB

View Answer


New Question 12:

An analyst creates a new content dictionary to use with Forged Email Detection. Which entry will be added into the dictionary?

A. mycompany.com

B. Alpha Beta

C. ^Alpha\ Beta$

D. [email protected]

View Answer


New Question 13:

Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safelist?

A. message filter

B. antivirus scanning

C. outbreak filter

D. antispam scanning

View Answer


New Question 14:

Which two query types are available when an LDAP profile is configured? (Choose two.)

A. proxy consolidation

B. user

C. recursive

D. group

E. routing

View Answer


New Question 15:

Which action is a valid fallback when a client certificate is unavailable during SMTP authentication on Cisco ESA?

A. LDAP Query

B. SMTP AUTH

C. SMTP TLS

D. LDAP BIND

View Answer

Verify the answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:DADACBDADBCACAAAADEB

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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 500-560
Exam Name: Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions Exam
Certification: Cisco Express Specialization – Networking Track
Duration: 60 minutes
Languages: English
Price:
Number of Questions: 45 – 55
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Cisco 500-560 exam questions online practice test:

Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

What is one feature of MV cameras that allows users to optimize video retention?

A. zoom lens

B. motion-based retention

C. low bit rate and frame rate

D. high definition

Question 2:

Which feature solution of Cisco DNA Center drives the concept of SLA and guarantees that the infrastructure is doing what you intended it to do?

A. Cisco DNA Assurance

B. Cisco ACI Anywhere

C. Cisco DNA Spaces

D. Cisco HyperFlex

Question 3:

What is one capability of the Catalyst 9200 web user interface?

A. integrating with compatible Cisco routers

B. providing AMP support

C. opening a case with Cisco Technical Assistance Center

D. monitoring selected sections on the dashboard

Question 4:

Where on the Web User interface can customers find details of application visibility and control?

A. the monitoring panel

B. the dashboard

C. configuration

D. troubleshooting

Question 5:

Which combination of MS switch models has supported foe physical stacking with each other?

A. MS120-8 and MS120-24

B. MS350-48 and MS350-24X

C. MS225-48 and MS350-48

D. MS225-24 and MS425-16

Question 6:

What is one benefit of the Cisco 1100 ISR router over the 900 ISR router for mid-size organizations?

A. The 1100 ISR provides support for xDSL types of WAN interfaces

B. The 1100 ISR is compatible with all Cisco switches.

C. The 1100 ISR provides APIC support.

D. The 1100 ISR includes a built-in firewall and advanced QOS features.

Question 7:

Which statement is true about Cisco Mobility Express?

A. It must be connected to a separate physical wireless controller to provide full enterprise features.

B. It can be deployed in under 10 minutes with an easy 3-stepover-the-air configuration wizard.

C. It comes with a simple, easy-to-use vManage dashboard.

D. Customers must purchase a license to support more than 50 APs.

Question 8:

Which is an SKU for Mobility Express?

A. AIR-AP1815W-X-K9

B. AlR-AP28021-K9

C. AIR-AP18151-K9C

D. AlR-AP18521-K9

Question 9:

What is one benefit of the Aironet 4800 AP?

A. cost-effectiveness for small-to-medium-sized deployments

B. modularity for investment protection

C. Cisco CleanAir

D. industry-leading hyper location

Question 10:

Which Cisco product is the network management system, foundational controller, and analytics platform all the center of ……. network?

A. Cisco DNA Spaces

B. Cisco Meraki

C. Cisco DNA Center

D. Cisco Wireless Solutions

Question 11:

What feature of the Catalyst does 2960-L allow customers to get a small branch or office network running within minutes?

A. support for Cisco DNA center

B. on-box web interface for configuration

C. flexible deployments with StackWise-160

D. complete CLI support

Question 12:

Which is a function performed by the dedicated third radio in MR access points?

A. RF optimization (Auto RF)

B. WLAN controller

C. Site survey planning

D. DHCP addressing

Question 13:

Which three product capabilities allow Cisco DNA Spaces to deliver business value?

A. Sense, Act, and Partner

B. View, Interpret, and Act

C. See, Anticipate and Respond

D. See, Act, and Extend

Question 14:

What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX Security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)

B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)

C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

Question 15:

Which statement correctly describes how Cisco Meraki devices behave should they be unable to contact the Meraki Cloud server?

A. The network devices will attempt to establish a connection to a locally hosted database server that has been configured for high availability.

B. The devices may be re-initiated into a backup mode if an administrator manually intervenes using a direct, local connection.

C. The network stops passing traffic across all devices and the interfaces including any connected non-Cisco Meraki devices.

D. The network devices continue to function normally (traffic lows at full rate) but management and configuration functions are interrupted.

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:BADBBCBCDCBADBD

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Examscode Exam Table of Contents:

Cisco 300-815 Practice testing questions from Youtube

https://youtube.com/watch?v=8DLzaDMVvFI

latest updated Cisco 300-815 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
What is the first preference condition matched in a SIP-enabled incoming dial peer?
A. incoming uri
B. target carrier-id
C. answer-address
D. incoming called-number
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip-voip/211306-In-DepthExplanation-of-Cisco-IOS-and-IO.html#anc8

 

QUESTION 2
What is the relationship between partition, time schedule, and the time period in Time-of-Day routing in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager?
A. A partition can have multiple time schedules assigned. A time schedule contains one or more time periods.
B. A partition can have a one-time schedule assigned. A time schedule contains one or more time periods.
C. A partition can have multiple time schedules assigned. A time schedule contains only one time period.
D. A partition can have a one-time schedule assigned. A time schedule contains only one time period.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
When locations-based Call Admission Control denies the call, which two masks can AAR apply when routing the call
through the PSTN? (Choose two.)
A. AAR destination mask
B. called party transform mask
C. external phone number mask
D. +E.164 alternate number mask
E. enterprise alternate number mask
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab10/collab10/dialplan.html

QUESTION 4
A user in location X dials an extension at location Y. The call travels through a QoS-enabled WAN network, but the user
experiences choppy or clipped audio. What is the cause of this issue?
A. missing Call Admission Control
B. codec mismatch
C. ptime mismatch
D. phone class of service issue
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
The administrator of ABC company is troubleshooting a one-way audio issue for a call that uses H.323 protocol (slowstart mode). The administrator requests that you provide the IP and port information of the Real-Time Transport Protocol
traffic that had the one-way audio call.
You gather the H.225 and H.245 messages for one of the one-way audio calls. Where can you find the RTP IP and port
information for both sides? (Note: This call flow has not invoked any media resources like MTP or transcoders).
A. H.245 Terminal Capability Set
B. H.245 Open Logical Channel
C. H.225 Connect
D. H.245 Open Logical Channel Ack
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://ccievoicehopeful.blogspot.com/2012/09/h323-notes.html

 

QUESTION 6
You see the voice register pool 1 command in your Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express configuration.
Which configuration is occurring in this section?
A. configuration for a single SIP phone
B. configuration items common for all SIP phones
C. configuration for a pool of SIP phones (similar to devise pool on Cisco Unified Communications Manager)
D. configuration for SIP registrar service
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cusrst/admin/sccp_sip_srst/configuration/guide/SCCP_and_SIP_SRST_Admin_Guide/srst_setting_up_using_sip.html

 

QUESTION 7[2021.2] lead4pass 300-815 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Users report that when they dial Cisco Unity Connection from an external network, they cannot
enter any digits. Assuming only in-band DTMF is supported, what is the reason for this malfunction?
A. The negotiated RTP port is outside of the range described by RFC, so inband DTMFs do not work.
B. There is SIP Delayed Offer. DTMF is supported only in Early Offer.
C. The rtpmap:0 value for the negotiated codec is marking DTMF as inactive.
D. No DTMF is negotiated.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8[2021.2] lead4pass 300-815 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. A user reports that when they call a specific phone number, no one answers the call, but when they
call from a mobile phone, the call is answered. The engineer troubleshooting the issue is expecting the far-end gateway
to cut through audio on the 183 Session Progress SIP message. Which SIP Profile configuration element is necessary
for the Cisco Unified Communications Manager to send acknowledgement of provisional responses?
A. Allow Passthrough of Configured Line Device Caller Information must be enabled.
B. Accept Audio Codec Preferences in Received Offer must be set to On.
C. On the SIP Profile, the configuration parameter SIP Rel1XX Options must be set to Send PRACK for all 1xx
Messages.
D. Early Offer for G Clear Calls must be enabled.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9[2021.2] lead4pass 300-815 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. Users report that outbound PSTN calls from phones registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager are not completing. The local service provider in North America has a requirement to receive calls in 10-digit
format. The Cisco Unified CM sends the calls to the Cisco Unified Border Element router in a globalized E.164 format.
There is an outbound dial-peer on Cisco Unified Border Element configured to send the calls to the provider. The dial-peer has a voice translation profile applied in the correct direction but an incorrect voice translation rule applied, which is
shown in the exhibit. Which rule modified DNIS in the format that the provider is expecting?
A. rule 1 /^/+\([^1].*\)/ /011\1/
B. rule 1/^\+1\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\1/
C. rule 1 /^\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\1/
D. rule 1 /^\+1\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\0/
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
An administrator is troubleshooting call failures on an H.323 gateway via the CLI. To see signaling for media and call
setup, which debug must the Administrator turn on?
A. debug H.323 messages
B. debug H.225 asn1
C. debug H.246 asn 1
D. debug H.225 media
E. debug H.323 asn 1
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
When configuring hunt groups, where do you add the individual directory numbers that will be part of the group?
A. route group
B. line group
C. hunt list
D. hunt pilot
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/12_0_1/systemConfig/cucm_b_systemconfiguration-guide-1201/cucm_b_system-configuration-guide-1201_chapter_010101.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are correct with respect to the Client Matter Code setting in the route pattern configuration?
(Choose two.)
A. The Client Matter Code feature does not support overlap sending because the Cisco Unified CM cannot determine
when to prompt the user for the code.
B. If you check the Allow Overlap Sending check box, the Require Client Matter Code check box becomes disabled.
C. If you check the Allow Overlap Sending check box, you can also check the Require Client Matter Code check box.
D. The Client Matter Code feature does support overlap sending because the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
can determine when to prompt the user for the code.
E. The Client Matter Code has the option to configure Authorization Level such as in the Forced Authorization Code.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmfeat/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F
_00_cucm-features-services-guide-100/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F_00_cucm-features-servicesguide100_chapter_010000.pdf

 

QUESTION 13
Which section under the Real-Time Monitoring Tool allows for reviewing the call flow and signaling for a SIP call in real-time?
A. Analysis Manager > Inventory > Trace File Repositories
B. System > Tools > Trace and Log Central
C. Voice/Video > Session Trace Log View > Real Time Data
D. Voice/Video > Session Trace Log View > Open From Local Disk
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-managercallmanager/213583-procedure-to-analyse-call-flow-of-sip-ca.html

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