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Information about CompTIA CS0-002 Exam

  • Vendor: CompTIA
  • Exam Code: CS0-002
  • Exam Name: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+)+
  • Certification: CompTIA CySA+
  • Total Questions: 196 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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  • Vendor: CompTIA
  • Exam Code: CLO-002
  • Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+
  • Certification: CompTIA Cloud Essentials
  • Total Questions: 73 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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  • Vendor: CompTIA
  • Exam Code: CAS-003
  • Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
  • Certification: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner
  • Total Questions: 673 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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  • Vendor: CompTIA
  • Exam Code: 220-1001
  • Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
  • Certification: CompTIA A+
  • Total Questions: 435 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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Examscode Exam Table of Contents:

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QUESTION 1
What is the first preference condition matched in a SIP-enabled incoming dial peer?
A. incoming uri
B. target carrier-id
C. answer-address
D. incoming called-number
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip-voip/211306-In-DepthExplanation-of-Cisco-IOS-and-IO.html#anc8

 

QUESTION 2
What is the relationship between partition, time schedule, and the time period in Time-of-Day routing in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager?
A. A partition can have multiple time schedules assigned. A time schedule contains one or more time periods.
B. A partition can have a one-time schedule assigned. A time schedule contains one or more time periods.
C. A partition can have multiple time schedules assigned. A time schedule contains only one time period.
D. A partition can have a one-time schedule assigned. A time schedule contains only one time period.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
When locations-based Call Admission Control denies the call, which two masks can AAR apply when routing the call
through the PSTN? (Choose two.)
A. AAR destination mask
B. called party transform mask
C. external phone number mask
D. +E.164 alternate number mask
E. enterprise alternate number mask
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab10/collab10/dialplan.html

QUESTION 4
A user in location X dials an extension at location Y. The call travels through a QoS-enabled WAN network, but the user
experiences choppy or clipped audio. What is the cause of this issue?
A. missing Call Admission Control
B. codec mismatch
C. ptime mismatch
D. phone class of service issue
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
The administrator of ABC company is troubleshooting a one-way audio issue for a call that uses H.323 protocol (slowstart mode). The administrator requests that you provide the IP and port information of the Real-Time Transport Protocol
traffic that had the one-way audio call.
You gather the H.225 and H.245 messages for one of the one-way audio calls. Where can you find the RTP IP and port
information for both sides? (Note: This call flow has not invoked any media resources like MTP or transcoders).
A. H.245 Terminal Capability Set
B. H.245 Open Logical Channel
C. H.225 Connect
D. H.245 Open Logical Channel Ack
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://ccievoicehopeful.blogspot.com/2012/09/h323-notes.html

 

QUESTION 6
You see the voice register pool 1 command in your Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express configuration.
Which configuration is occurring in this section?
A. configuration for a single SIP phone
B. configuration items common for all SIP phones
C. configuration for a pool of SIP phones (similar to devise pool on Cisco Unified Communications Manager)
D. configuration for SIP registrar service
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cusrst/admin/sccp_sip_srst/configuration/guide/SCCP_and_SIP_SRST_Admin_Guide/srst_setting_up_using_sip.html

 

QUESTION 7[2021.2] lead4pass 300-815 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Users report that when they dial Cisco Unity Connection from an external network, they cannot
enter any digits. Assuming only in-band DTMF is supported, what is the reason for this malfunction?
A. The negotiated RTP port is outside of the range described by RFC, so inband DTMFs do not work.
B. There is SIP Delayed Offer. DTMF is supported only in Early Offer.
C. The rtpmap:0 value for the negotiated codec is marking DTMF as inactive.
D. No DTMF is negotiated.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8[2021.2] lead4pass 300-815 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. A user reports that when they call a specific phone number, no one answers the call, but when they
call from a mobile phone, the call is answered. The engineer troubleshooting the issue is expecting the far-end gateway
to cut through audio on the 183 Session Progress SIP message. Which SIP Profile configuration element is necessary
for the Cisco Unified Communications Manager to send acknowledgement of provisional responses?
A. Allow Passthrough of Configured Line Device Caller Information must be enabled.
B. Accept Audio Codec Preferences in Received Offer must be set to On.
C. On the SIP Profile, the configuration parameter SIP Rel1XX Options must be set to Send PRACK for all 1xx
Messages.
D. Early Offer for G Clear Calls must be enabled.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9[2021.2] lead4pass 300-815 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. Users report that outbound PSTN calls from phones registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager are not completing. The local service provider in North America has a requirement to receive calls in 10-digit
format. The Cisco Unified CM sends the calls to the Cisco Unified Border Element router in a globalized E.164 format.
There is an outbound dial-peer on Cisco Unified Border Element configured to send the calls to the provider. The dial-peer has a voice translation profile applied in the correct direction but an incorrect voice translation rule applied, which is
shown in the exhibit. Which rule modified DNIS in the format that the provider is expecting?
A. rule 1 /^/+\([^1].*\)/ /011\1/
B. rule 1/^\+1\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\1/
C. rule 1 /^\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\1/
D. rule 1 /^\+1\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\0/
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
An administrator is troubleshooting call failures on an H.323 gateway via the CLI. To see signaling for media and call
setup, which debug must the Administrator turn on?
A. debug H.323 messages
B. debug H.225 asn1
C. debug H.246 asn 1
D. debug H.225 media
E. debug H.323 asn 1
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
When configuring hunt groups, where do you add the individual directory numbers that will be part of the group?
A. route group
B. line group
C. hunt list
D. hunt pilot
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/12_0_1/systemConfig/cucm_b_systemconfiguration-guide-1201/cucm_b_system-configuration-guide-1201_chapter_010101.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are correct with respect to the Client Matter Code setting in the route pattern configuration?
(Choose two.)
A. The Client Matter Code feature does not support overlap sending because the Cisco Unified CM cannot determine
when to prompt the user for the code.
B. If you check the Allow Overlap Sending check box, the Require Client Matter Code check box becomes disabled.
C. If you check the Allow Overlap Sending check box, you can also check the Require Client Matter Code check box.
D. The Client Matter Code feature does support overlap sending because the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
can determine when to prompt the user for the code.
E. The Client Matter Code has the option to configure Authorization Level such as in the Forced Authorization Code.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmfeat/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F
_00_cucm-features-services-guide-100/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F_00_cucm-features-servicesguide100_chapter_010000.pdf

 

QUESTION 13
Which section under the Real-Time Monitoring Tool allows for reviewing the call flow and signaling for a SIP call in real-time?
A. Analysis Manager > Inventory > Trace File Repositories
B. System > Tools > Trace and Log Central
C. Voice/Video > Session Trace Log View > Real Time Data
D. Voice/Video > Session Trace Log View > Open From Local Disk
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-managercallmanager/213583-procedure-to-analyse-call-flow-of-sip-ca.html

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has sent the following request to the NetScaler:lead4pass 1y0-440 exam questions q1

Which response would indicate the successful execution of the NITRO command?
A. 302
B. 201
C. 202
D. 200
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has deployed Authentication for the SharePoint server through NetScaler. In order to ensure that users are able to edit or upload documents, the architect has configured persistent cookies on the NetScaler
profile.
Which action should the architect take to ensure that cookies are shared between the browser and non-browser
applications?
A. The time zone should be the same on the NetScaler, client, and SharePoint server.
B. The SharePoint load-balancing VIP FQDN and the AAA VIP FQDN should be in the trusted site of the client browser.
C. The Secure flag must be enabled on the cookie.
D. The cookie type should be HttpOnly.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX209054

 

QUESTION 3
Which parameter must a Citrix Architect configure to ensure that HDX Proxy Connection terminates upon AAA Session
TimeOut?
A. ICA session timeout in VPN parameters
B. Session timeout(mins) in NetScaler Gateway Session Profile.
C. Session timeout(mins) in VPN Parameters
D. ICA session timeout in Netscaler Gateway Session Profile.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.citrix.com/content/dam/citrix/en_us/citrix-developer/documents/Netscaler/how-do-i-ica-sessiontimeout-with-aaa.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Citrix Architect and a team of Workspacelab members met to discuss a NetScaler design project. They
captured the following requirements from this design discussion:
1.
A pair of NetScaler MPX appliances will be deployed in the DMZ network.
2.
High Availability will be accessible in the NetScaler MPX in the DMZ Network.
3.
Load balancing should be performed for the internal network services like Microsoft Exchange Client Access Services
and Microsoft App-V.
4.
The load balancing should be performed for StoreFront.
5.
The NetScaler Gateway virtual server will be utilizing the StoreFront load-balancing virtual server.
6.
The NetScaler Gateway virtual server and StoreFront.
7.
The NetScaler Gateway virtual service and StoreFront and load-balancing services are publicly accessible.
8.
The traffic for internal and external services must be isolated.
Click the Exhibit button to review the logical network diagram.lead4pass 1y0-440 exam questions q4

Which two design decisions are incorrect based on these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. LB StoreFront bound to traffic Domain 0
B. NetScaler Gateway VIP bound to Traffic Domain 1
C. LB APP-V bound to Traffic Domain 1
D. SNIP 192.168.20.2 bound to Traffic Domain 1
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new multi-datacenter NetScaler deployment. The customer wants
NetScaler to provide access to various backend resources by using Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) in an active-active deployment.
Click the Exhibit button to view additional requirements identified by the architect.lead4pass 1y0-440 exam questions q5

Which GSLB algorithm or method should the architect use for the deployment, based on the stated requirements?
A. Dynamic round trip time (RTT)
B. Least response time
C. Static proximity D. least connection
E. Least packets
F. Source IP hash
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler/12/global-server-load-balancing/methods/configuring-algorithm-basedmethods.html

 

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to deploy three VPX instances on NetScaler SDX 11500 device to meet the following
design requirements:
1.
Three (3) VPX instances must be provisioned on the SDX device.
2.
Instance 1 must be utilized for deploying the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
3.
Instance 2 must be utilized for deploying load balancing virtual servers for XML, Director, StoreFront, and Active
Directory servers.
4.
A separate IP address must be utilized for communication with the XenApp environment and LDAP communication.
5.
Instance 3 must be used for deploying the test environment.
6.
In the test environment, NetScaler Gateway virtual server, load balancing virtual servers for XML, Director, StoreFront
and Active Directory servers must be configured.
How many IP addresses will be required to meet these design requirements?
A. 14
B. 20
C. 16
D. 18
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to plan for a customer environment in which more than 10,000 users will need
access. The networking infrastructure needs to be able to handle the expected usage.
Which business driver should be prioritized based on the customer\\’s requirement?
A. Increase in flexibility
B. Enable mobile work styles
C. Simplify management
D. Increase Scalability
E. Reduce Costs
F. Increase Security
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which three methods can a Citrix Architect use to assess the capabilities of network infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. Review existing monitoring solutions for periods of latency, lost packets, and insufficient bandwidth.
B. Map the location of the users against the existing network topology.
C. Alter firewall rules of the existing network to fit into the new NetScaler Deployment.
D. Examine the topology for single points of failure and potential bottlenecks.
E. Ensure that users and computers are in the correct organizational units (OUs).
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 9
Which four load-balancing methods support NetScaler Virtual Server-Level Slow Start? (Choose four.)
A. URLHash
B. Least response time
C. Least Packets
D. Least Connection
E. Token
F. Least bandwidth
G. SRCIPSRCPORTHash
Correct Answer: BCDF
Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX108886

 

QUESTION 10
A Citrix Architect has deployed NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) to monitor a high availability pair
of NetScaler VPX devices.
The architect needs to deploy automated configuration backup to meet the following requirements:
1.
The configuration backup file must be protected using a password.
2.
The configuration backup must be performed each day at 8:00 AM GMT.
3.
The configuration backup must also be performed if any changes are made in the ns. conf file.
4.
Once the transfer is successful, auto-delete the configuration file from the NMAS.
Which SNMP trap will trigger the configuration file backup?
A. netScalerConfigSave
B. sysTotSaveConfigs
C. netScalerConfigChange
D. sysconfigSave
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler-mas/12/instance-management/how-to-backup-and-restore-usingmas.html#configuring-instance-backup-settings

 

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has implemented two high availability pairs of MPX 5500 and MPX 11500 devices
respectively with 12.0.53.13 NC version. The NetScaler devices are set up to handle NetScaler Gateway, Load
Balancing, Application Firewall, and Content Switching. The Workspacelab infrastructure is set up to be monitored with
NMAS version 12.0.53.13 NC by the Workspacelab administrators. The Workspacelab team wants to implement one
more pair of NetScaler MPX 7500 devices with version 12.0.53.13 nc.
The Citrix consulting team has assigned the task to implement these NetScaler devices in the infrastructure and set
them up to be monitored and managed by NMAS.
The following are the requirements that were discussed during the project initiation call:
1.
NMAS should be configured to get the infrastructure information under sections such as HDX Insight, WEB Insight, and
Security Insight.
2.
Configuration on the new MPX devices should be identical to MPX 11500 devices.
3.
Configuration changes after the deployment and initial setup should be optimized using NMAS.
4.
NMAS should be utilized to configure templates that can be utilized by the Workspacelab team in a future deployment.
5.
As per the requirement from the Workspacelab team, NMAS should be store the audited data for only 15 days.
Which process should the architect utilize to ensure that the deployment of MPX 11500 devices are optimized and that it
is correct, before deploying the devices in production?
A. Under Stylebooks; Inbuilt and composite stylebook templates should be utilized prior to deployment.
B. Under Stylebooks; Public and composite stylebook templates should be utilized prior to deployment.
C. Under Configuration Management; Configuration Audit and Advice should be used prior to deployment.
D. Under Configuration jobs; Configuration Audit and Advice should be used prior to deployment.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a NetScaler deployment in Microsoft Azure. An Active-Passive NetScaler
VPX pair will provide load balancing for three distinct web applications. The architect has identified the following
requirements:
1.
Minimize deployment costs where possible.
2.
Provide dedicated bandwidth for each web application.
3.
Provide a different public IP address for each web application.
For this deployment, the architect should configure each NetScaler VPX machine to have ______ network interface(s)
and configure IP address by using ________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence).
A. 4; Port Address Translation
B. 1; Network Address Translation
C. 1; Port Address Translation
D. 2; Network Address Translation
E. 4; Network Address Translation
F. 2; Port Address Translation
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Which step does a Citrix Architect need to ensure during the Define phase when following the Citrix methodology?
A. Testing steps were integrated.
B. The project manager agrees with road map timelines.
C. A phased rollout was completed.
D. Existing networking infrastructure is ready.
E. The redundancy deployment decision was made.
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
A master image that will be used to deploy machines for a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment should have
the ___________ installed on it so that ___________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA); users can access resources on the machines
B. Citrix Workspace app; users can access resources on the machines
C. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA); machines can communicate with the Site database
D. Citrix Workspace app; machines can communicate with the Site database
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configured the rewrite policies below:lead4pass 1y0-204 exam questions q2

In which order will the policies be evaluated?
A. POL_2, POL_3
B. POL_2
C. POL_2, POL_3, POL_4, POL_1
D. POL_2, POL_3, POL_4
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Scenario: While using Citrix Studio to create a new Delivery Group, a Citrix Administrator does NOT see any machine
catalogs listed, but does see an error message. The administrator successfully verified the presence of machine
catalogs in the Machine Catalogs node of Citrix Studio.
Which issue can cause this to happen?
A. The Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) version is lower than 7.15 LTSR.
B. There are no unassigned machine catalog machines.
C. No machine catalog machines have been started.
D. The administrator has insufficient permissions to create the Delivery Group.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is implementing policies in a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site. The administrator is
using both Active Directory Organizational Unit (OU) level GPOs and Citrix local-Site policies to maintain the Site. All
non-Citrix user and computer policies are implemented through domain- level GPOs.
Which policies will be processes first for this Site when a user creates an HDX session?
A. Citrix local-Site policies
B. Domain-level Gros
C. OU level GPOs
D. Site-level GPOs
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
A Citrix Administrator has configured the Citrix ADC as a DNS Proxy Server. The administrator executed the following
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What will be the effect of executing the above commands?
A. Set the AA bit of DNS Request
B. Set the AA bit of DNS Response
C. Unset the AA bit of DNS Request
D. Unset the AA bit of DNS Response
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to add 10 new web servers to an existing server farm. The new servers are
configured to serve the same applications and connections and are twice the capacity of the existing servers. The
administrator wants to ensure that they are being fully utilized. Currently, in the environment, the default load-balancing method is being used.
To ensure that only the 10 new servers are receiving twice the connections of the old servers without changing the load
balancing to the rest of the environment, the administrator needs to add a weight of _____________ to the services
attached to the _________ servers. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 50; new
B. 2; old
C. 50; old
D. 2; new
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Scenario: The Help Dest team is troubleshooting a printing issue. Users connect to print servers located in two different
datacenters. The print servers host identical drivers and queues. Upon investigation, a Citrix Administrator finds that
users can only print to one of the print servers successfully.
The Network team informed the administrator that only Citrix-related traffic is allowed between the two Sites.
How can the administrator fix this issue?
A. Create a Citrix policy that limits the bandwidth consumption used by printing.
B. Create a Citrix policy that disables direct connections to the print servers.
C. Install Universal printer drivers to all print servers.
D. Create a Citrix policy to auto-create printers.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
What two options are limitations of a typical Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) setup? (Choose two.)
A. An administrator CANNOT define a backup for a backup Vserver in an active-standby GSLB setup for a given GSLB
domain
B. Apply spillover policies on a subset of GSLB services and the user CANNOT have a backup for a subset of GSLB
services.
C. Restrict the selection of a GSLB service from a subset of GSLB services bound to a GSLB virtual server for the given
domain.
D. Any given GSLB Vserver can load-balance only one FQDN.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy Citrix Virtual Apps. Project requirements dictate that management and
maintenance should be minimized for the administrator, while still maintaining control of the Virtual Delivery Agent
(VDA) machines.
Which hosting platform should the administrator choose to meet these requirements?
A. Service provider
B. On-premises
C. Public Cloud-hosted
D. Citrix Cloud
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is working on a published application. The network is connected for 100 seconds but is
interrupted and applications become unusable. The session then automatically resumes, and the administrator is able to
continue working on the application at the same progress point as before the interruption.
Which policy is enabled in this scenario?
A. Load Management
B. Session Reliability
C. ICA Keep-Alive
D. Auto client reconnect
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is in the process of migrating the existing 7.15 LTSR Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA)
machines used on-premises to Citrix Cloud. The administrator has created a new manual machine catalog and Delivery
Group in Citrix Cloud and pointed to the existing Device Collection in Citrix Provisioning. The administrator also
restarted the VDA machines.
What could prevent the VDA machines from registering in Citrix Cloud?
A. The VDA master image was NOT updated to communicate with the Cloud Connectors.
B. One of the two Cloud Connectors is down and unresponsive.
C. The Citrix policies have NOT been migrated to Citrix Cloud.
D. The VDA on the master image has NOT been updated to a later version.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is configuring the Citrix Workspace app to allow users to access their applications and
desktops. Management requires that users can log on to the environment from any device without having to remember
the server address.
What should the administrator do to meet these requirements?
A. Deploy and configure the Citrix Workspace app using scripts.
B. Configure a DNS Service Record for the Citrix Workspace app.
C. Allow users to download the configuration from Citrix.com.
D. Configure the Citrix Workspace app using a Group Policy Template File.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX133982

 

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator notices an intermittent latency issue within a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops
environment. The issue only involves external users entering through a Citrix Gateway.
The administrator reviews Citrix ADC logs identifies the problem as a networking issue, and now wants a more granular
view of the data in order to isolate the issue further.
Which Citrix tool can the administrator use to view the network information?
A. Citrix Diagnostic Toolkit
B. HDX Insight
C. Citrix Scout
D. Configuration Logging
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which correctly define “Section View” and “Global View” for firewall policies? (Choose two.) NSE6 pdf
A. Section View lists firewall policies primarily by their interface pairs.
B. Section View lists firewall policies primarily by their sequence number.
C. Global View lists firewall policies primarily by their interface pairs.
D. Global View lists firewall policies primarily by their policy sequence number.
E. The ‘any’ interface may be used with Section View.
Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
What protocol cannot be used with the active authentication type?
A. Local
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. RSSO
Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What determines whether a log message is generated or not?
A. Firewall policy setting
B. Log Settings in the GUI
C. ‘config log’ command in the CLI
D. Syslog
E. Webtrends
Answer: A
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QUESTION 4         NSE6 dumps
Which of the following are considered log types? (Choose three.)
A. Forward log
B. Traffic log
C. Syslog
D. Event log
E. Security log
Answer: BDE

QUESTION 5
When configuring LDAP on the FortiGate as a remote database for users, what is not a part of the configuration?
A. The name of the attribute that identifies each user (Common Name Identifier).
B. The user account or group element names (user DN).
C. The server secret to allow for remote queries (Primary server secret).
D. The credentials for an LDAP administrator (password).
Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Examine this log entry. What does the log indicate? (Choose three.)
date=2013-12-04 time=09:30:18 logid=0100032001 type=event subtype=system level=information vd=”root” user=”admin” ui=http(192.168.1.112) action=login status=success reason=none profile=”super_admin” msg=”Administrator admin logged in successfully from http(192.168.1.112)” NSE6 pdf
A. In the GUI, the log entry was located under “Log & Report > Event Log > User”.
B. In the GUI, the log entry was located under “Log & Report > Event Log > System”.
C. In the GUI, the log entry was located under “Log & Report > Traffic Log > Local Traffic”.
D. The connection was encrypted.
E. The connection was unencrypted.
F. The IP of the FortiGate interface that “admin” connected to was 192.168.1.112.
G. The IP of the computer that “admin” connected from was 192.168.1.112.
Answer: BEG

QUESTION 7
Where are most of the security events logged? NSE6 dumps
A. Security log
B. Forward Traffic log
C. Event log
D. Alert log
E. Alert Monitoring Console
Answer: C

QUESTION 8
In “diag debug flow” output, you see the message “Allowed by Policy-1: SNAT”. Which is true?
A. The packet matched the topmost policy in the list of firewall policies.
B. The packet matched the firewall policy whose policy ID is 1.
C. The packet matched a firewall policy, which allows the packet and skips UTM checks
D. The policy allowed the packet and applied session NAT.
Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What attributes are always included in a log header? (Choose three.)
A. policyid
B. level
C. user
D. time
E. subtype
F. duration
Answer: BDE

QUESTION 10
What log type would indicate whether a VPN is going up or down?
A. Event log
B. Security log
C. Forward log
D. Syslog
Answer: A

QUESTION 11
When an administrator attempts to manage FortiGate from an IP address that is not a trusted host, what happens?
A. FortiGate will still subject that person’s traffic to firewall policies; it will not bypass them.
B. FortiGate will drop the packets and not respond.
C. FortiGate responds with a block message, indicating that it will not allow that person to log in.
D. FortiGate responds only if the administrator uses a secure protocol. Otherwise, it does not respond
Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A backup file begins with this line: #config-version=FGVM64-5.02-FW-build589-140613:opmode=0:vdom=0:user=admin #conf_file_ver=3881503152630288414 #buildno=0589 #global_vdom=1 Can you restore it to a FortiWiFi 60D? NSE6 dumps
A. Yes
B. Yes, but only if you replace the “#conf_file_ver” line so that it contains the serial number of that specific FortiWiFi 60D.
C. Yes, but only if it is running the same version of FortiOS or a newer compatible version.
D. No
Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A project team is in the process of risk planning. One of the team members identifies a weather-related risk, which may
cause delivery delays.
Which of the following is the BEST risk response strategy?
A. Exploit
B. Enhance
C. Mitigate
D. Communicate
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A company\\’s management team is in a meeting to review all the products and services delivered in the first quarter of
the year for profitability. They are requesting information on payback period, return on investment, and total cost of
ownership. The project manager is checking the project repository for available documentation. In which of the following
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A. Business case
B. Project charter
C. Risk management plan
D. Scope of work
Correct Answer: A

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A project team is not delivering their tasks in a timely manner. Additionally, tasks are being reworked because
requirements continue to be identified as work packages are being delivered.
Which of the following are NOST likely missing from the project? (Select two.)
A. Project charter
B. Organizational chart
C. Scope document
D. Status report
E. Business case
F. Project plan
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 4
A company has hired a new project manager. The PMO has briefed the new project manager on the following expected
responsibilities for projects:
Coordinate project schedule
Manage to the triple constraint
Provide performance feedback to team members\\’ managers
Which of the following types of organizational structures did the new project manager MOST likely join?
A. Balanced matrix
B. Strong matrix
C. Functional
D. Projectized
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following are the roles involved in a Scrum project?
A. Scrum master, development team, quality coach
B. Scrum master, business analyst, product owner
C. Scrum master, product owner, development team
D. Scrum master, project sponsor, business analyst
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Due to a new government regulation, a project change is required. The project manager evaluates the change and
realizes a representative from the legal department will need to approve the change as well. The project manager
should:
A. follow the change process flow and notify the legal department after the change is implemented.
B. extend a formal invitation to the legal department representative to join the CCB.
C. hold a separate meeting with the legal department representative and ask for approval.
D. notify the legal department representative in the event of an upcoming audit.
Correct Answer: B
References: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 294

QUESTION 7
A project team is defining detailed risks. Which of the following project phases is taking place?
A. Initiation
B. Monitor and control
C. Execution
D. Planning
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A governance committee has just approved a new project. The project scheduler is now developing the project
schedule. Which of the following activities should be done FIRST?
A. Add durations.
B. Add the start and finish dates
C. Add tasks.
D. Add resources.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following charts is a graphical representation of the causes of a specific event?
A. Histogram
B. Scatter
C. Fishbone
D. Gantt
Correct Answer: C
A fishbone diagram is a cause-and-effect diagram that shows the relationship between the effects of problems and their
causes. This diagram depicts every potential cause of a problem and the effect that each proposed solution will have on
the problem.

QUESTION 10
At a weekly project team meeting, it is apparent the project is over budget. The project manager needs to determine the
reason for this issue. Which of the following documents should MOST likely be analyzed to obtain the answer?
A. Project charter, organization chart, scope statement, and issue log
B. Dashboard information, action items, project schedule, and status report
C. Project management plan, scope statement, communication plan, and meeting agendas
D. Project schedule, project management plan, communication plan, and issue log
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A project team is overseeing the installation of a new reptile habitat at the local zoo. During execution, zoo personnel
decides to house a different type of reptile that will require a different temperature range than the capacity of the
installed system. The modification has been approved.
Which of the following constraints are MOST likely to be affected? (Choose two.)
A. Quality because the existing system is now outside the threshold.
B. Requirements because this is a change to initial scope.
C. Cost because replacing the system incurs additional expense.
D. Schedule because this was an unscheduled task and will impact the timeline.
E. Stakeholders because they will need to understand the modification and provide buy-in.
Correct Answer: CD
References: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 293

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is described as placing responsibility for addressing the potential effects of an uncertain future
event on an entity outside the organization?
A. Risk avoidance:e
B. Risk transfer
C. Risk exploitation
D. Risk mitigation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An active project has a CPI of 0.92. Which of the following can be determined?
A. The project is currently over budget.
B. The project has a budget surplus.
C. The project is ahead of schedule.
D. The project is behind schedule.
Correct Answer: A
Reference http://smallbusiness.chron.com/project-management-cpi-numbers-mean-35541.html

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following are characteristics of jumbo frames? (Choose two.)
A. Commonly used on SAN
B. MTU size greater than 1500
C. MTU size greater than 10000
D. Commonly used on IaaS
E. MTU size greater than 12000
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following policies would be the MOST useful for defining the proper procedures when an employee is
terminated abruptly?
A. Offboarding
B. Remote access
C. AUP
D. Incident response
E. DLP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
The IT manager at a small firm is in the process of renegotiating an SLA with the organization\\’s ISP. As part of the
agreement, the organization will agree to a dynamic bandwidth plan to provide 150Mbps of bandwidth. However, if the
ISP determines that a host on the organization\\’s internal network produces malicious traffic, the ISP reserves the right
to reduce available bandwidth to 1.5 Mbps. Which of the following policies is being agreed to in the SLA?
A. Session hijacking
B. Blocking
C. Throttling
D. Data usage limits
E. Bandwidth quotasf
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
A network technician is installing a new wireless network for a client. The client has experienced issues with other
building tenants connecting to the wireless network and utilizing the bandwidth. The client wants to prevent this from
happening
by using certificate-based authentication. Which of the following technologies should the network administrator
implement?
A. WPA-PSK
B. EAP-TLS
C. AES-CCMP
D. WEP-TKIP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Given the table below:lead4pass n10-007 practice test q5

Which of the following addresses can Host E send a packet to that will reach Hosts C and D, but not Hosts A and B?
A. 192.168.5.1
B. 192.168.11.0
C. 192.168.11.255
D. 192.168.255.255
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
A new user is reporting connectivity issues. Zach, the network technician, notices that there is no link light on the
user\\’s NIC. Which of the following would be used to verify the wiring back to the patch panel?
A. Butt set
B. Cable certifier
C. Toner probe
D. Snips
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Users on a LAN segment are reporting a loss of connectivity to network services. The client PCs have been assigned
with 169.254.X.X IP addresses. Which of the following IP address schemas is being utilized?
A. Private IP
B. Static IP
C. APIPA
D. Loopback
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
A user calls the help desk for assistance with setting up a new SOHO router. The user has three employees who all
have laptops that need to connect to the wireless network. The users need to have firewall rules allowing access to an
internal server, but cannot be configured with static IP addresses. Which of the following BEST describes what the
technician should implement?
A. CNAME record in the users\\’ dynamic DNS accounts
B. Additional lease time for the laptop computers
C. IP helper relay system for configuration hops
D. DHCP reservation for the laptops\\’ MACs
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
A network technician is troubleshooting a problem with a user\\’s client-to-site VPN connection. The user is unable to
establish a connection to the server, but the error message that appears on the screen does not contain useful information.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Reconfigure the user\\’s VPN connection in the router to fix profile corruption.
B. Inform the user that provisioning sometimes fails and the connection needs to be attempted again.
C. Review the logs in the VPN client to check for any informational messages.
D. Verify the system has the latest OS patches installed.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
A network administrator is downloading a large patch that will be uploaded to several enterprise switches
simultaneously during the day\\’s upgrade cycle. Which of the following should the administrator do to help ensure the upgrade process will be less likely to cause problems with the switches?
A. Confirm the patch\\’s MD5 hash prior to the upgrade.
B. Schedule the switches to reboot after an appropriate amount of time.
C. Download each switch\\’s current configuration before the upgrade.
D. Utilize FTP rather than TFTP to upload the patch.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following will prevent switching loops by selectively shutting down switch ports?
A. RIP
B. IGP
C. STP
D. VLAN
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Which of the following will listen on the line to ensure there is no traffic transmitting and implement a back-off timer if a collision occurs?
A. CSMA/CD
B. CSMA/CA
C. MPLS
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
A second router was installed on a network to be used as a backup for the primary router that works as a gateway. The
infrastructure team does not want to change the IP address of the gateway on the devices. Which of the following
network components should be used in this scenario?
A. Loopback IP
B. Virtual IP
C. Reserved IP
D. Public
Correct Answer: B

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Our goal is to help more people pass the CompTIA exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important!
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