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QUESTION 1
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of the interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two mechanisms provide Cisco IOS XE Software with control plane and data plane separation? (Choose two.)
A. Forwarding and Feature Manager
B. Forwarding Engine Driver
C. Forwarding Performance Management
D. Forwarding Information Base
Correct Answer: A,B

QUESTION 3
Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 4             400-151 dumps
Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst?
A. slow convergence
B. a blocked spanning-tree port
C. process switching
D. insufficient buffers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco IOS AAA features are available with the local database? (Choose two.)
A. command authorization
B. network access authorization
C. network accounting
D. network access authentication
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which option describes a limitation of Embedded Packet Capture?
A. It can capture data only on physical interfaces and subinterfaces.
B. It can store only packet data.
C. It can capture multicast packets only on ingress.
D. It can capture multicast packets only on egress.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which statement about NAT64 is true? 400-151 dumps
A. NAT64 provides address family translation and translates IPv4 to IPv6 and IPv6 to IPv4.
B. NAT64 provides address family translation and can translate only IPv6 to IPv4.
C. NAT64 should be considered as a permanent solution.
D. NAT64 requires the use of DNS64.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which technology can create a filter for an embedded packet capture?
A. Control plane policing
B. Access lists
C. NBAR
D. Traffic shaping
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the most efficient way to confirm whether microbursts of traffic are occurring?
A. Monitor the output traffic rate using the show interface command.
B. Monitor the output traffic rate using the show controllers command.
C. Check the CPU utilization of the router.
D. Sniff the traffic and plot the packet rate over time.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Change the corresponding loopback address.
B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Clear the EIGRP process.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
According to RFC 4577, OSPF for BGP/MPLS IP VPNs, 400-151 dumps when must the down bit be set?
A. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 LSAs
B. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 5 LSAs
C. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 and Type 5 LSAs
D. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for all types of LSAs
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller is installed.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installation documents.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately after the installation is complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach the Cisco TAC if they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a foor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices.
Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new foor? 300-360 pdf
A. Data Coverage Support Margin
B. Demand Settings
C. Add AP Field
D. 802.11n Protocol Support
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3         300-360 dumps
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dishD. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
An engineer would like to calibrate the RF environment to improve accuracy.
Which wireless attribute is added to the foor-level calculation by calibrating the foor?
A. attenuation
B. TX power
C. multipath
D. SNR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
An engineer is installing a wireless network in an industrial area with extreme temperatures and a significant amount of dust. Which enclosure should be used to protect the APs? 300-360 dumps
A. ACU
B. ADU
C. NEMA
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers. 300-360 pdf
What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two steps are associated with the active portion of the audit when a post-installation audit is performed with an auditing tool such as Ekahau? (Choose two.)
A. Check for co-channel interference by standing near an access point on one channel and watching for other access points that are on the same channel.
B. Verify smooth roaming.
C. Check to see if the signal level on other access points that are heard on the same channel is at least 19dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to.
D. Check that all channels are supported by the APs regardless of client capabilities.
E. Verify that the network traffic of physical data rate and packet loss meets user requirements.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center which requires data and location services. 300-360 dumps Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. access points in corner sand a long perimeters
Correct Answer: BCG

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements describe effects of the DoNothing option within the untrusted network policy on a Cisco Any Connect profile? (Choose two.)
A. The client initiates a VPN connection upon detection of an untrusted network.
B. The client initiates a VPN connection upon detection of a trusted network.
C. The always-on feature is enabled.
D. The always-on feature is disabled.
E. The client does not automatically initiate any VPN connection.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco adaptive security appliance command can be used to view the IPsec PSK of a tunnel group in cleartext?
A. more system:running-config
B. show running-config crypto
C. show running-config tunnel-group
D. show running-config tunnel-group-map
E. clear config tunnel-group
F. show ipsec policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A user is unable to establish an AnyConnect VPN connection to an ASA. When using the Real-Time Log viewer within ASDM to troubleshoot the issue, 300-209 dumps which two filter options would the administrator choose to show only syslog messages relevant to the VPN connection? (Choose two.)
A. Client’s public IP address
B. Client’s operating system
C. Client’s default gateway IP address
D. Client’s username
E. ASA’s public IP address
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
When an IPsec SVTI is configured, which technology processes traffic forwarding for encryption? 300-209 pdf
A. ACL
B. IP routing
C. RRI
D. front door VPN routing and forwarding
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three remote access VPN methods in an ASA appliance provide support for Cisco Secure Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. IKEv1
B. IKEv2
C. SSL client
D. SSL clientless
E. ESP
F. L2TP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6
Which protocol can be used for better throughput performance when using Cisco AnyConnect VPN?
A. TLSv1
B. TLSv1.1
C. TLSv1.2
D. DTLSv1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What are two variables for configuring clientless SSL VPN single sign-on? (Choose two.) 300-209 dumps
A. CSCO_WEBVPN_OTP_PASSWORD
B. CSCO_WEBVPN_INTERNAL_PASSWORD
C. CSCO_WEBVPN_USERNAME
D. CSCO_WEBVPN_RADIUS_USER
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which configuration is used to build a tunnel between a Cisco ASA and ISR?
A. crypto map
B. DMVPN
C. GET VPN
D. GRE with IPsec
E. GRE without IPsec
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which transform set is contained in the IKEv2 default proposal? 300-209 pdf
A. aes-cbc-192, sha256, group 14
B. 3des, md5, group 7
C. 3des, sha1, group 1
D. aes-cbc-128, sha, group 5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway is configured to operate in clientless mode so that users can access file shares on a Microsoft Windows 2003 server.
Which protocol is used between the Cisco IOS router and the Windows server?
A. HTTPS
B. NetBIOS
C. CIFS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The following configuration steps have been completeD.
WebVPN was enabled on the ASA outside interface.
SSL VPN client software was loaded to the ASA.
A DHCP scope was configured and applied to a WebVPN Tunnel Group.
What additional step is required if the client software fails to load when connecting to the ASA SSL page?
A. The SSL client must be loaded to the client by an ASA administrator
B. The SSL client must be downloaded to the client via FTP
C. The SSL VPN client must be enabled on the ASA after loading
D. The SSL client must be enabled on the client machine before loading
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which statement describes a prerequisite for single-sign-on Netegrity Cookie Support in an IOC SSL VPN? 300-209 dumps
A. The Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client must be installed in flash.
B. A SiteMinder plug-in must be installed on the Cisco SSL VPN gateway.
C. A Cisco plug-in must be installed on a SiteMinder server.
D. The Cisco Secure Desktop software package must be installed in flash.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. 200-125 dumps

The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem? 200-125 pdf
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Two features of the extended ping command? (Choose two.)
A. It can send a specific number of packet
B. It can send packet from specified interface of IP address
C. It can resolve the destination host name
D. It can ping multiple host at the same time
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
What command is used to configure a switch as authoritative NTP server?
A. ntp master 3
B. ntp peer IP
C. ntp server IP
D. ntp source IP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Two statements about syslog loging? 200-125 dumps
A. Syslog logging is disabled by default
B. Messages are stored in the internal memory of device
C. Messages can be erased when device reboots
D. Messages are stored external to the device
E. other
F. other
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches?
A. Configure VLAN
B. Confiture NTP
C. Configure each VLAN
D. Configure VTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.) 200-125 pdf
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.) 200-125 dumps
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

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QUESTION 1
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)? 300-135
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen? 300-135
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? ( choose two )
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolate the cause of this fault and answer the following question.  300-135
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the global configuration, delete the no ip dhcp use vrf connected command.
B. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the default -router 10.2.1.254 command and enter the default-router 10.1.4.5 command.
C. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, delete the network 10.2.1.0 255.255.255.0 command and enter the network 10.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 command.
D. Under the IP DHCP pool configuration, issue the no ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.253 command and enter the ip dhcp excluded-address 10.2.1.1 10.2.1.2 command.
Correct Answer: D

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