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[Update Dec 2022] CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CS0-002 Exam Dumps

cs0-002 exam dumps

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Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timeLast updated
15CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+)Lead4PassDec 06, 2022CS0-002 dumps
NEW QUESTION 1:

Due to new regulations, a company has decided to institute an organizational vulnerability management program and assign the function to the security team. Which of the following frameworks would BEST support the program? (Choose two.)

A. COBIT
B. NIST
C. ISO 27000 series
D. ITIL
E. COSO

Correct Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 2:

A malicious hacker wants to gather guest credentials on a hotel 802.11 network. Which of the following tools is the malicious hacker going to use to gain access to information found on the hotel network?

A. Nikto
B. Aircrak-ng
C. Nessus
D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3:

A company\’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) published an Internet usage policy that prohibits employees from accessing unauthorized websites. The IT department whitelisted websites used for business needs.

The CISO wants the security analyst to recommend a solution that would improve security and support employee morale. Which of the following security recommendations would allow employees to browse non-business-related websites?

A. Implement a virtual machine alternative.
B. Develop a new secured browser.
C. Configure a personal business VLAN.
D. Install kiosks throughout the building.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4:

A security analyst reviews SIEM logs and detects a well-known malicious executable running on a Windows machine.

The up-to-date antivirus cannot detect the malicious executable. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. The malware is lifeless and exists only in physical memory
B. The malware detects and prevents its own execution in a virtual environment
C. The antivirus does not have the malware\’s signature
D. The malware is being executed with administrative privileges

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5:

An organization is attempting to harden its web servers and reduce the information that might be disclosed by potential attackers. A security analyst is reviewing vulnerability scan results from a recent web server scan.

Portions of the scan results are shown below:

new cs0-002 dumps questions 5

Which of the following lines indicates information disclosure about the host that needs to be remediated?

A. Response: :\Documents\MarySmith\mailingList.pdf
B. Finding#5144322
C. First Time Detected 10 Nov 2015 09:00 GMT-0600
D. Access Path: http://myOrg.com/mailingList.htm
E. Request: GET http://myOrg.com/mailingList.aspx?content=volunteer

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6:

To validate local system-hardening requirements, which of the following types of vulnerability scans would work BEST to verify the scanned device meets security policies?

A. SCAP
B. SAST
C. DAST
D. DACS

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/7/html/security_guide/scanning-
the-system-for-configuration-compliance-and-vulnerabilities_security-hardening

NEW QUESTION 7:

A security administrator determines several months after the first instance that a local privileged user has been routinely logging into a server interactively as “root” and browsing the Internet.

The administrator determines this by performing an annual review of the security logs on that server. For which of the following security architecture areas should the administrator recommend review and modification? (Select TWO).

A. Log aggregation and analysis
B. Software assurance
C. Encryption
D. Acceptable use policies
E. Password complexity
F. Network isolation and separation

Correct Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 8:

While conducting research on malicious domains, a threat intelligence analyst received a blue screen of death. The analyst rebooted and received a message stating that the computer had been locked and could only be opened by following the instructions on the screen.

Which of the following combinations describes the MOST likely threat and the PRIMARY mitigation for the threat?

A. Ransomware and update antivirus
B. Account takeover and data backups
C. Ransomware and full disk encryption
D. Ransomware and data backups

Correct Answer: D

NEWW QUESTION 9:

A security analyst discovers the accounting department is hosting an accounts receivable form on a public document service. Anyone with the link can access it. Which of the following threats applies to this situation?

A. Potential data loss to external users
B. Loss of public/private key management
C. Cloud-based authentication attack
D. Insufficient access logging

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10:

Which of the following are the MOST likely reasons to include reporting processes when updating an incident response plan after a breach? (Select TWO).

A. To establish a clear chain of command
B. To meet regulatory requirements for timely reporting
C. To limit reputation damage caused by the breach
D. To remediate vulnerabilities that led to the breach
E. To isolate potential insider threats
F. To provide secure network design changes

Correct Answer: BF

NEW QUESTION 11:

As part of the senior leadership team\’s ongoing risk management activities the Chief Information Security Officer has tasked a security analyst with coordinating the right training and testing methodology to respond to new business initiatives or significant changes to existing ones The management team wants to examine a new business process that would use existing infrastructure to process and store sensitive data.

Which of the following would be appropriate for the security analyst to coordinate?

A. A black-box penetration testing engagement

B. A tabletop exercise

C. Threat modeling

D. A business impact analysis

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12:

Which of the following commands would a security analyst use to make a copy of an image for forensics use?

A. dd
B. wget
C. touch
D. rm

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13:

While analyzing network traffic, a security analyst discovers several computers on the network are connecting to a malicious domain that was blocked by a DNS sinkhole. A new private IP range is now visible, but no change requests were made to add it.

Which of the following is the BEST solution for the security analyst to implement?

A. Block the domain IP at the firewall.
B. Blacklist the new subnet
C. Create an IPS rule.
D. Apply network access control.

Correct Answer: A


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QUESTION 1:

An organization is attempting to harden its web servers and reduce the information that might be disclosed by potential attackers. A security analyst is reviewing vulnerability scan results from a recent web server scan.
Portions of the scan results are shown below:

Which of the following lines indicates information disclosure about the host that needs to be remediated?

A. Response: :\Documents\MarySmith\mailingList.pdf
B. Finding#5144322
C. First Time Detected 10 Nov 2015 09:00 GMT-0600
D. Access Path: http://myOrg.com/mailingList.htm
E. Request: GET http://myOrg.com/mailingList.aspx?content=volunteer

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A company has a popular shopping cart website hosted in geographically diverse locations. The company has started hosting static content on a content delivery network (CDN) to improve performance. The CDN provider has reported the company is occasionally sending attack traffic to other CDN-hosted targets.
Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?

A. The CDN provider has mistakenly performed a GeoIP mapping to the company.
B. The CDN provider has misclassified the network traffic as hostile.
C. A vulnerability scan has been tuned to exclude web assets hosted by the CDN.
D. The company has been breached, and customer PII is being exfiltrated to the CDN.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

A security analyst is assisting with a computer crime investigation and has been asked to secure a PC and deliver it to the forensic lab. Which of the following items would be MOST helpful to secure the PC? (Choose three.)

A. Tamper-proof seals
B. Faraday cage
C. Chain of custody form
D. Drive eraser
E. Write blockers
F. Network tap
G. Multimeter

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4:

Which of the following stakeholders would need to be aware of an e-discovery notice received by the security office about an ongoing case within the manufacturing department?

A. Board of trustees
B. Human resources
C. Legal D. Marketing

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5:

An analyst was investigating the attack that took place on the network. A user was able to access the system without proper authentication. Which of the following will the analyst recommend, related to management approaches, in order to control access? (Choose three.)

A. RBAC
B. LEAP
C. DAC
D. PEAP
E. MAC
F. SCAP
G. BCP

Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6:

A company\’s IDP/DLP solution triggered the following alerts:

Which of the following alerts should a security analyst investigate FIRST?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7:

A software assurance lab is performing a dynamic assessment on an application by automatically generating and inputting different, random data sets to attempt to cause an error/failure condition. Which of the following software assessment capabilities is the lab performing AND during which phase of the SDLC should this occur? (Select two.)

A. Fuzzing
B. Behavior modeling
C. Static code analysis
D. Prototyping phase
E. Requirements phase
F. Planning phase

Correct Answer: AD
Reference: http://www.brighthub.com/computing/smb-security/articles/9956.aspx

QUESTION 8:

A company has implemented WPA2, a 20-character minimum for the WiFi passphrase, and a new WiFi passphrase every 30 days, and has disabled SSID broadcast on all wireless access points. Which of the following is the company trying to mitigate?

A. Downgrade attacks
B. Rainbow tables
C. SSL pinning
D. Forced deauthentication

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

A security operations team was alerted to abnormal DNS activity coming from a user\’s machine. The team performed a forensic investigation and discovered a host had been compromised. Malicious code was using DNS as a tunnel to extract data from the client machine, which had been leaked and transferred to an unsecured public Internet site. Which of the following BEST describes the attack?

A. Phishing
B. Pharming
C. Cache poisoning
D. Data exfiltration

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

During a routine log review, a security analyst has found the following commands that cannot be identified from the Bash history log on the root user:

Which of the following commands should the analyst investigate FIRST?

A. Line 1
B. Line 2
C. Line 3
D. Line 4
E. Line 5
F. Line 6

Correct Answer: B

……


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Latest updated CompTIA CS0-002 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
A pharmaceutical company\\’s marketing team wants to send out notifications about new products to alert users of
recalls and newly discovered adverse drug reactions. The team plans to use the names and mailing addresses that
users have
provided.
Which of the following data privacy standards does this violate?
A. Purpose limitation
B. Sovereignty
C. Data minimization
D. Retention
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www.isitethical.eu/portfolio-item/purpose-limitation/

 

QUESTION 2
An organization suspects it has had a breach, and it is trying to determine the potential impact. The organization knows
the following:
The source of the breach is linked to an IP located in a foreign country. The breach is isolated to the research and
development servers. The hash values of the data before and after the breach are unchanged. The affected servers
were
regularly patched, and a recent scan showed no vulnerabilities.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn with respect to the threat and impact? (Choose two.)
A. The confidentiality of the data is unaffected.
B. The threat is an APT.
C. The source IP of the threat has been spoofed.
D. The integrity of the data is unaffected.
E. The threat is an insider.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 3
A security analyst has a sample of malicious software and needs to know what the sample does? The analyst runs the
sample in a carefully controlled and monitored virtual machine to observe the software behavior. Which of the following
malware analysis approaches is this?
A. White box testing
B. Fuzzing
C. Sandboxing
D. Static code analysis
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
An analyst is searching a log for potential credit card leaks. The log stores all data encoded in hexadecimal. Which of
the following commands will allow the security analyst to confirm the incident?
A. cat log xxd -r -p | egrep \\’ [0-9] {16}
B. egrep \\'(3(0-9)) (16) \\’ log
C. cat log | xxd -r -p egrep \\'(0-9) (16)\\’
D. egrep \\’ (0-9) (16) \\’ log | xxdc
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
The threat intelligence department recently learned of an advanced persistent threat that is leveraging a new strain of
malware, exploiting a system router. The company currently uses the same device mentioned in the threat report. Which
of the following configuration changes would BEST improve the organization\\’s security posture?
A. Implement an IPS rule that contains content for the malware variant and patch the routers to protect against the
vulnerability
B. Implement an IDS rule that contains the IP addresses from the advanced persistent threat and patch the routers to
protect against the vulnerability
C. Implement an IPS rule that contains the IP addresses from the advanced persistent threat and patch the routers to
protect against the vulnerability
D. Implement an IDS rule that contains content for the malware variant and patch the routers to protect against the
vulnerability
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A security analyst is reviewing the following log from an email security service.comptia cs0-002 exam questions q6

Which of the following BEST describes the reason why the email was blocked?
A. The To address is invalid.
B. The email originated from the www.spamfilter.org URL.
C. The IP address and the remote server name are the same.
D. The IP address was blacklisted.
E. The From address is invalid.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.webopedia.com/TERM/R/RBL.html

 

QUESTION 7
A small electronics company decides to use a contractor to assist with the development of a new FPGA- based device.
Several of the development phases will occur off-site at the contractor\\’s labs. Which of the following is the main
concern a security analyst should have with this arrangement?
A. Making multiple trips between development sites increases the chance of physical damage to the FPGAs.
B. Moving the FPGAs between development sites will lessen the time that is available for security testing.
C. Development phases occurring at multiple sites may produce change management issues.
D. FPGA applications are easily cloned, increasing the possibility of intellectual property theft.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.eetimes.com/how-to-protect-intellectual-property-in-fpgas-devices-part-1/#

 

QUESTION 8
A security analyst suspects a malware infection was caused by a user who downloaded malware after clicking
http:///a.php in a phishing email. To prevent other computers from being infected by the same malware variation, the
analyst should create a rule on the __________.
A. email server that automatically deletes attached executables.
B. IDS to match the malware sample.
C. proxy to block all connections to .
D. firewall to block connection attempts to dynamic DNS hosts.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
An analyst is reviewing a list of vulnerabilities, which were reported from a recent vulnerability scan of a Linux server.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be a false positive?
A. OpenSSH/OpenSSL Package Random Number Generator Weakness
B. Apache HTTP Server Byte Range DoS
C. GDI+ Remote Code Execution Vulnerability (MS08-052)
D. HTTP TRACE / TRACK Methods Allowed (002-1208)
E. SSL Certificate Expiry
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 10
A security analyst received a series of antivirus alerts from a workstation segment, and users reported ransomware
messages. During lessons-learned activities, the analyst determines the antivirus was able to alert to abnormal behavior
but did not stop this newest variant of ransomware. Which of the following actions should be taken to BEST mitigate the
effects of this type of threat in the future?
A. Enabling sandboxing technology
B. Purchasing cyber insurance
C. Enabling application blacklisting
D. Installing a firewall between the workstations and Internet
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
A cybersecurity analyst is dissecting an intrusion down to the specific techniques and wants to organize them in a
logical manner. Which of the following frameworks would BEST apply in this situation?
A. Pyramid of Pain
B. MITRE ATTandCK
C. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
D. CVSS v3.0
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Joe, a penetration tester, used a professional directory to identify a network administrator and ID administrator for a
client\\’s company. Joe then emailed the network administrator, identifying himself as the ID administrator, and asked for
a current password as part of a security exercise. Which of the following techniques were used in this scenario?
A. Enumeration and OS fingerprinting
B. Email harvesting and host scanning
C. Social media profiling and phishing
D. Network and host scanning
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
An organisation is assessing risks so it can prioritize its mitigation actions. Following are the risks and their probability
and impact:

comptia cs0-002 exam questions q13

Which of the following is the order of priority for risk mitigation from highest to lowest?
A. A, B, C, D
B. A, D, B, C
C. B, C, A, D
D. C, B, D, A
E. D, A, C, B
Correct Answer: A

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Information about CompTIA CS0-002 Exam

  • Vendor: CompTIA
  • Exam Code: CS0-002
  • Exam Name: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+)+
  • Certification: CompTIA CySA+
  • Total Questions: 196 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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NEW QUESTION 1:

An analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident. The analyst has isolated the vulnerability and is actively removing it from the system. Which of the following steps of the process does this describe?

A. Eradication

B. Recovery

C. Containment

D. Preparation

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

Eradication is a step in the incident response process that involves removing any traces or remnants of the incident from the affected systems or networks, such as malware, backdoors, compromised accounts, or malicious files.

Eradication also involves restoring the systems or networks to their normal or secure state, as well as verifying that the incident is eliminated and cannot recur. In this case, the analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident by isolating the vulnerability and actively removing it from the system. This describes the eradication step of the incident response process.

NEW QUESTION 2:

A security analyst found the following entry in a server log:

comptia cs0-003 exam materials questions 2

The analyst executed netstat and received the following output:

comptia cs0-003 exam materials questions 2-1

Which of the following lines in the output confirms this was successfully executed by the server?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

F. 6

G. 7

Correct Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 3:

An international company is implementing a marketing campaign for a new product and needs a security analyst to perform a threat-hunting process to identify possible threat actors. Which of the following should be the analyst\’s primary focus?

A. Hacktivists

B. Organized crime

C. Nation-states

D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4:

A technician identifies a vulnerability on a server and applies a software patch. Which of the following should be the next step in the remediation process?

A. Testing

B. Implementation

C. Validation

D. Rollback

Correct Answer: C

Analysis and explanation

The next step in the remediation process after applying a software patch is validation. Validation is a process that involves verifying that the patch has been successfully applied, that it has fixed the vulnerability, and that it has not caused any adverse effects on the system or application functionality or performance. Validation can be done using various methods, such as scanning, testing, monitoring, or auditing.

NEW QUESTION 5:

Legacy medical equipment, which contains sensitive data, cannot be patched. Which of the following is the best solution to improve the equipment\’s security posture?

A. Move the legacy systems behind a WAR

B. Implement an air gap for the legacy systems.

C. Place the legacy systems in the perimeter network.

D. Implement a VPN between the legacy systems and the local network.

Correct Answer: B

Analysis and explanation

Implementing an air gap for the legacy systems is the best solution to improve their security posture. An air gap is a physical separation of a system or network from any other system or network that may pose a threat.

An air gap can prevent any unauthorized access or data transfer between the isolated system or network and the external environment.

Implementing an air gap for legacy systems can help protect them from being exploited by attackers who may take advantage of their unpatched vulnerabilities.

NEW QUESTION 6:

Which of the following will most likely ensure that mission-critical services are available in the event of an incident?

A. Business continuity plan

B. Vulnerability management plan

C. Disaster recovery plan

D. Asset management plan

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7:

Security awareness and compliance programs are most effective at reducing the likelihood and impact of attacks from:

A. advanced persistent threats.

B. corporate spies.

C. hacktivists.

D. insider threats.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8:

A company is aiming to test a new incident response plan. The management team has made it clear that the initial test should have no impact on the environment. The company has limited resources to support testing. Which of the following exercises would be the best approach?

A. Tabletop scenarios

B. Capture the flag

C. Red team vs. blue team

D. Unknown-environment penetration test

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

A tabletop scenario is an informal, discussion-based session in which a team discusses their roles and responses during an emergency, walking through one or more example scenarios.

A tabletop scenario is the best approach for a company that wants to test a new incident response plan without impacting the environment or using many resources. A tabletop scenario can help the company identify strengths and weaknesses in its plan, clarify roles and responsibilities, and improve communication and coordination among team members.

The other options are more intensive and disruptive exercises that involve simulating a real incident or attack. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 16;

https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/tabletop-exercises-explained-matt-lemon-phd

NEW QUESTION 9:

A zero-day command injection vulnerability was published. A security administrator is analyzing the following logs for evidence of adversaries attempting to exploit the vulnerability:

comptia cs0-003 exam materials questions 9

Which of the following log entries provides evidence of the attempted exploit?

A. Log entry 1

B. Log entry 2

C. Log entry 3

D. Log entry 4

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10:

During an extended holiday break, a company suffered a security incident. This information was properly relayed to appropriate personnel in a timely manner and the server was up to date and configured with appropriate auditing and logging. The Chief Information Security Officer wants to find out precisely what happened. Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?

A. Clone the virtual server for forensic analysis

B. Log in to the affected server and begin analysis of the logs

C. Restore from the last-known-good backup to confirm there was no loss of connectivity

D. Shut down the affected server immediately

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

The first action that the analyst should take in this case is to clone the virtual server for forensic analysis. Cloning the
virtual server involves creating an exact” state at a specific point in time. Cloning the virtual server can help preserve
and protect any evidence or information related to the security incident, as well as prevent any tampering,
contamination, or destruction of evidence. Cloning the virtual server can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and
investigate the incident without affecting the original server or its operations.

NEW QUESTION 11:

Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)

A. Lessons learned

B. Service-level agreement

C. Playbook

D. Affected hosts

E. Risk score

F. Education plan

Correct Answer: DE

Analysis and explanation

A vulnerability scan report should include information about the affected hosts, such as their IP addresses, hostnames,
operating systems, and services. It should also include a risk score for each vulnerability, which indicates the severity
and potential impact of the vulnerability on the host and the organization. Official https://www.first.org/cvss/

NEW QUESTION 12:

Which of the following is the best way to begin preparation for a report titled “What We Learned” regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach?

A. Determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for

B. Include references and sources of information on the first page

C. Include a table of contents outlining the entire report

D. Decide on the color scheme that will effectively communicate the metrics

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

The best way to begin preparation” regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach is to determine the
sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for. The sophistication of the audience refers to their level of
technical knowledge, understanding, or interest in cybersecurity topics. Determining the sophistication of the audience
can help tailor the report content, language, tone, and format to suit their needs and expectations. For example, a report
for executive management may be more concise, high-level, and business-oriented than a report for technical staff or peers.

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