How can I get CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) certification in my first exam? If you want to get CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) certification, you’re not An easy thing to do! Choose the right choice and you’ll be successful easily! This is a risk and compliance exam and get a high salary, please read me carefully By the end of the article, you’ll get the most valuable reward!
Every year, a very large number of people register themselves and take the CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) certification exam. Take the CAS-003 certification exam for the first time And the success rate is not very high! Now, you must want to be confident about preparing and passing the CAS-003 exam. All your questions and answers are at Lead4Pass – CAS-003 dumps. Based on feedback from the CAS-003 syllabus and on-site exams, and our year-round update of questions and answers, easy to learn, easy to buy, Help you pass exams very easily.
Lead4pass provides CAS-003 dumps in the form of CAS-003 PDF and VCE practice exams. Lead4pass is 8 years old and we’ve helped thousands of aspiring people get CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) certification. The candidates used us CAS-003 Dumps and successfully obtained certification awards. You are still preparing for exam CAS-003, or you have failed. Lead4pass is an old shop, one worth it Trusted old store, choose lead4pass CAS-003 dumps to help every CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) certification exam candidate successfully get certified. Get a high salary!
CompTIA CAS-003 PDF exam
CompTIA CAS-003 dumps PDF, easy to use on all devices (mobile devices, pc devices, tablets)! You can go through all the operating systems The device reads CAS-003 pdf exam questions. We also regularly update the pdf version of the CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) exam to improve exam questions CAS-003. Passing your CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) exam certification is the first step to successful certification. CAS-003 pdf can help you easily learn and pass the CAS-003 exam.
CompTIA CAS-003 VCE exam
VCE tools are tools created by professional developers of Led4Pass and are easy to use at CAS-003 VCE! Easy to operate! More features and easier! CompTIA CAS-003 Dumps VCE for ease of use on all devices (mobile devices, pc devices, tablets)! You can go through all the operating systems The device reads CAS-003 VCE exam questions. We also regularly update the VCE version of the CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) exam to improve the CAS-003 exam questions. Passing your CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) exam certification is the first step to successful certification. CAS-003 VCE can help you easily learn and pass the CAS-003 exam.
Our third CAS-003 exam format is recommended (pdf + vce)
Improve the success rate of the CAS-003 exam, and learn efficiently we have introduced the (PDF And VCE) model! This is a feature of the Lead4Pass CAS-003 practice test. This makes our software unique. To pass the CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) exam certification with good grades, you should select the CAS-003 exam a key technology. Be sure to practice these techniques with confidence to sit in the exam room. Based on CompTIA CAS-003 (PDF And VCE) exam questions and answers can help you Learn how to answer the final CAS-003 question within the set time. After trying to simulate an exam, you will learn all the key exam techniques.
We know that thousands of candidates around the world take the CompTIA CAS-003 exam, but not everyone has enough exam balances! So Lead4pass shares timely and effective CAS-003 exam discount codes throughout the year to help more people in need save more money! Lead4pass has always been the highest test value for money across the network! We have a small profit and more sales! Serve more people in need!
CompTIA CAS-003 Dumps with Free Updates and Refund Guaranty
I keep mentioning that Lead4pass is an old store, which is our pride, we serve thousands of new and old customers! They prefer to use The Lead4Pass CAS-003 exam dumps as it is by ours CompTIA exam experts design and long-term word-of-mouth cast results! Choosing Lead4pass PDF and VCE (Practice Exam) will help you get the most out of your exam and help You save more on learning practices and get the latest exam tips. Successfully passing the CompTIA CAS-003 exam will not only help you gain certification but will also help you stand out and achieve higher levels in your career Return! Our CAS-003 exam preparation materials are created by the latest exam question updates that are fed back in each practice exam! CompTIA CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) experts are available to update and change the latest exam questions and answers. If the purchase of our products after the change, within 60 days of purchase to obtain a replacement of the product. Most importantly, if you first try to pass our study materials and fail the exam we will buy them for you A full refund is available for the product. Our sole purpose is to help you pass the exam.
How can I get CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 certification in my first exam? If you want to get CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 certification, you’re not An easy thing to do! Choose the right choice and you’ll be successful easily! This is a risk and compliance exam and get a high salary, please read me carefully By the end of the article, you’ll get the most valuable reward!
Every year, a very large number of people register themselves and take the CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 certification exam. Take the 220-1001 certification exam for the first time And the success rate is not very high! Now, you must want to be confident about preparing and passing the 220-1001 exam. All your questions and answers are at Lead4Pass – 220-1001 dumps. Based on feedback from the 220-1001 syllabus and on-site exams, and our year-round update of questions and answers, easy to learn, easy to buy, Help you pass exams very easily.
Information about CompTIA 220-1001 Exam
Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: 220-1001
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
Certification: CompTIA A+
Total Questions: 435 Q&A
Exam Language: English
Lead4Pass CompTIA 220-1001 exam dumps in 3 formats
Lead4pass provides 220-1001 dumps in the form of 220-1001 PDF and VCE practice exams. Lead4pass is 8 years old and we’ve helped thousands of aspiring people get CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 certification. The candidates used us 220-1001 dumps and successfully obtained certification awards. You are still preparing for exams 220-1001, or you have failed. Lead4pass is an old shop, one worth it Trusted old store, choose lead4pass 220-1001 dumps to help every CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 certification exam candidate successfully get certified. Get a high salary!
CompTIA 220-1001 PDF exam
CompTIA 220-1001 dumps PDF, easy to use on all devices (mobile devices, pc devices, tablets)! You can go through all the operating systems The device reads 220-1001 pdf exam questions. We also regularly update the pdf version of the CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 exam to improve exam questions 220-1001. Passing your CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 exam certification is the first step to successful certification. 220-1001 pdf can help you easily learn and pass the 220-1001 exam.
CompTIA 220-1001 VCE exam
VCE tools are tools created by professional developers of Led4Pass and are easy to use at 220-1001 VCE! Easy to operate! More features and easier! CompTIA 220-1001 dumps VCE for ease of use on all devices (mobile devices, pc devices, tablets)! You can go through all the operating systems The device reads 220-1001 VCE exam questions. We also regularly update the VCE version of the CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 exam to improve the 220-1001 exam questions. Passing your CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 exam certification is the first step to successful certification. 220-1001 VCE can help you easily learn and pass the 220-1001 exam.
Our third 220-1001 exam format is recommended (pdf + vce)
Improve the success rate of the 220-1001 exam, and learn efficiently we have introduced the (PDF And VCE) model! This is a feature of the Lead4Pass 220-1001 practice test. This makes our software unique. To pass the CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 exam certification with good grades, you should select the 220-1001 exam a key technology. Be sure to practice these techniques with confidence to sit in the exam room. Based on CompTIA 220-1001 (PDF And VCE) exam questions and answers can help you Learn how to answer the final 220-1001 question within the set time. After trying to simulate an exam, you will learn all the key exam techniques.
We know that thousands of candidates around the world take the CompTIA 220-1001 exam, but not everyone has enough exam balances! So Lead4pass shares timely and effective 220-1001 exam discount codes throughout the year to help more people in need save more money! Lead4pass has always been the highest test value for money across the network! We have a small profit and more sales! Serve more people in need!
CompTIA 220-1001 Dumps with Free Updates and Refund Guaranty
I keep mentioning that Lead4pass is an old store, which is our pride, we serve thousands of new and old customers! They prefer to use The Lead4Pass 220-1001 exam dumps as it is by ours CompTIA exam experts design and long-term word-of-mouth cast results! Choosing Lead4pass PDF and VCE (Practice Exam) will help you get the most out of your exam and help You save more on learning practices and get the latest exam tips. Successfully passing the CompTIA 220-1001 exam will not only help you gain certification but will also help you stand out and achieve higher levels in your career Return! Our 220-1001 exam preparation materials are created by the latest exam question updates that are fed back in each practice exam! CompTIA CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 experts are available to update and change the latest exam questions and answers. If the purchase of our products after the change, within 60 days of purchase to obtain a replacement of the product. Most importantly, if you first try to pass our study materials and fail the exam we will buy them for you A full refund is available for the product. Our sole purpose is to help you pass the exam.
Newly shared Cisco 300-815 exam learning preparation program! Get the latest 300-815 exam exercise questions and exam dumps pdf for free! 100% pass the exam to select the full Cisco 300-815 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/300-815.html the link to get VCE or PDF. All exam questions are updated!
Lead4pass offers the latest Cisco 300-815 PDF Google Drive
QUESTION 2 What is the relationship between partition, time schedule, and the time period in Time-of-Day routing in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. A partition can have multiple time schedules assigned. A time schedule contains one or more time periods. B. A partition can have a one-time schedule assigned. A time schedule contains one or more time periods. C. A partition can have multiple time schedules assigned. A time schedule contains only one time period. D. A partition can have a one-time schedule assigned. A time schedule contains only one time period. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 When locations-based Call Admission Control denies the call, which two masks can AAR apply when routing the call through the PSTN? (Choose two.) A. AAR destination mask B. called party transform mask C. external phone number mask D. +E.164 alternate number mask E. enterprise alternate number mask Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab10/collab10/dialplan.html
QUESTION 4 A user in location X dials an extension at location Y. The call travels through a QoS-enabled WAN network, but the user experiences choppy or clipped audio. What is the cause of this issue? A. missing Call Admission Control B. codec mismatch C. ptime mismatch D. phone class of service issue Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 The administrator of ABC company is troubleshooting a one-way audio issue for a call that uses H.323 protocol (slowstart mode). The administrator requests that you provide the IP and port information of the Real-Time Transport Protocol traffic that had the one-way audio call. You gather the H.225 and H.245 messages for one of the one-way audio calls. Where can you find the RTP IP and port information for both sides? (Note: This call flow has not invoked any media resources like MTP or transcoders). A. H.245 Terminal Capability Set B. H.245 Open Logical Channel C. H.225 Connect D. H.245 Open Logical Channel Ack Correct Answer: B Reference: http://ccievoicehopeful.blogspot.com/2012/09/h323-notes.html
Refer to the exhibit. Users report that when they dial Cisco Unity Connection from an external network, they cannot enter any digits. Assuming only in-band DTMF is supported, what is the reason for this malfunction? A. The negotiated RTP port is outside of the range described by RFC, so inband DTMFs do not work. B. There is SIP Delayed Offer. DTMF is supported only in Early Offer. C. The rtpmap:0 value for the negotiated codec is marking DTMF as inactive. D. No DTMF is negotiated. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. A user reports that when they call a specific phone number, no one answers the call, but when they call from a mobile phone, the call is answered. The engineer troubleshooting the issue is expecting the far-end gateway to cut through audio on the 183 Session Progress SIP message. Which SIP Profile configuration element is necessary for the Cisco Unified Communications Manager to send acknowledgement of provisional responses? A. Allow Passthrough of Configured Line Device Caller Information must be enabled. B. Accept Audio Codec Preferences in Received Offer must be set to On. C. On the SIP Profile, the configuration parameter SIP Rel1XX Options must be set to Send PRACK for all 1xx Messages. D. Early Offer for G Clear Calls must be enabled. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. Users report that outbound PSTN calls from phones registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager are not completing. The local service provider in North America has a requirement to receive calls in 10-digit format. The Cisco Unified CM sends the calls to the Cisco Unified Border Element router in a globalized E.164 format. There is an outbound dial-peer on Cisco Unified Border Element configured to send the calls to the provider. The dial-peer has a voice translation profile applied in the correct direction but an incorrect voice translation rule applied, which is shown in the exhibit. Which rule modified DNIS in the format that the provider is expecting? A. rule 1 /^/+\([^1].*\)/ /011\1/ B. rule 1/^\+1\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\1/ C. rule 1 /^\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\1/ D. rule 1 /^\+1\([2-9]..[2-9]……$\)/ /\0/ Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 An administrator is troubleshooting call failures on an H.323 gateway via the CLI. To see signaling for media and call setup, which debug must the Administrator turn on? A. debug H.323 messages B. debug H.225 asn1 C. debug H.246 asn 1 D. debug H.225 media E. debug H.323 asn 1 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which two statements are correct with respect to the Client Matter Code setting in the route pattern configuration? (Choose two.) A. The Client Matter Code feature does not support overlap sending because the Cisco Unified CM cannot determine when to prompt the user for the code. B. If you check the Allow Overlap Sending check box, the Require Client Matter Code check box becomes disabled. C. If you check the Allow Overlap Sending check box, you can also check the Require Client Matter Code check box. D. The Client Matter Code feature does support overlap sending because the Cisco Unified Communications Manager can determine when to prompt the user for the code. E. The Client Matter Code has the option to configure Authorization Level such as in the Forced Authorization Code. Correct Answer: AB Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmfeat/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F _00_cucm-features-services-guide-100/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F_00_cucm-features-servicesguide100_chapter_010000.pdf
Lead4pass shares the latest Cisco exam Discount code “Cisco“. Enter the Discount code to get a 15% Discount!
About lead4pass
Lead4Pass has 8 years of exam experience! A number of professional Cisco exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers! Our goal is to help more people pass the Cisco exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important! In the study, you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
Citrix 1Y0-440 exam ready here! Get the latest 1Y0-440 exam exercise questions and exam dumps pdf for free! 100% pass the exam to select the full Citrix 1Y0-440 dumps the link to get VCE or PDF. All exam questions are updated!
Lead4pass offers the latest Citrix 1Y0-440 Google Drive
Citrix 1Y0-440 Practice testing questions from Youtube
latest updated Citrix 1Y0-440 exam questions and answers
QUESTION 1 Scenario: A Citrix Architect has sent the following request to the NetScaler:
Which response would indicate the successful execution of the NITRO command? A. 302 B. 201 C. 202 D. 200 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A Citrix Architect has deployed Authentication for the SharePoint server through NetScaler. In order to ensure that users are able to edit or upload documents, the architect has configured persistent cookies on the NetScaler profile. Which action should the architect take to ensure that cookies are shared between the browser and non-browser applications? A. The time zone should be the same on the NetScaler, client, and SharePoint server. B. The SharePoint load-balancing VIP FQDN and the AAA VIP FQDN should be in the trusted site of the client browser. C. The Secure flag must be enabled on the cookie. D. The cookie type should be HttpOnly. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX209054
QUESTION 4 Scenario: A Citrix Architect and a team of Workspacelab members met to discuss a NetScaler design project. They captured the following requirements from this design discussion: 1. A pair of NetScaler MPX appliances will be deployed in the DMZ network. 2. High Availability will be accessible in the NetScaler MPX in the DMZ Network. 3. Load balancing should be performed for the internal network services like Microsoft Exchange Client Access Services and Microsoft App-V. 4. The load balancing should be performed for StoreFront. 5. The NetScaler Gateway virtual server will be utilizing the StoreFront load-balancing virtual server. 6. The NetScaler Gateway virtual server and StoreFront. 7. The NetScaler Gateway virtual service and StoreFront and load-balancing services are publicly accessible. 8. The traffic for internal and external services must be isolated. Click the Exhibit button to review the logical network diagram.
Which two design decisions are incorrect based on these requirements? (Choose two.) A. LB StoreFront bound to traffic Domain 0 B. NetScaler Gateway VIP bound to Traffic Domain 1 C. LB APP-V bound to Traffic Domain 1 D. SNIP 192.168.20.2 bound to Traffic Domain 1 Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new multi-datacenter NetScaler deployment. The customer wants NetScaler to provide access to various backend resources by using Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) in an active-active deployment. Click the Exhibit button to view additional requirements identified by the architect.
QUESTION 6 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to deploy three VPX instances on NetScaler SDX 11500 device to meet the following design requirements: 1. Three (3) VPX instances must be provisioned on the SDX device. 2. Instance 1 must be utilized for deploying the NetScaler Gateway virtual server. 3. Instance 2 must be utilized for deploying load balancing virtual servers for XML, Director, StoreFront, and Active Directory servers. 4. A separate IP address must be utilized for communication with the XenApp environment and LDAP communication. 5. Instance 3 must be used for deploying the test environment. 6. In the test environment, NetScaler Gateway virtual server, load balancing virtual servers for XML, Director, StoreFront and Active Directory servers must be configured. How many IP addresses will be required to meet these design requirements? A. 14 B. 20 C. 16 D. 18 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to plan for a customer environment in which more than 10,000 users will need access. The networking infrastructure needs to be able to handle the expected usage. Which business driver should be prioritized based on the customer\\’s requirement? A. Increase in flexibility B. Enable mobile work styles C. Simplify management D. Increase Scalability E. Reduce Costs F. Increase Security Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which three methods can a Citrix Architect use to assess the capabilities of network infrastructure? (Choose three.) A. Review existing monitoring solutions for periods of latency, lost packets, and insufficient bandwidth. B. Map the location of the users against the existing network topology. C. Alter firewall rules of the existing network to fit into the new NetScaler Deployment. D. Examine the topology for single points of failure and potential bottlenecks. E. Ensure that users and computers are in the correct organizational units (OUs). Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 9 Which four load-balancing methods support NetScaler Virtual Server-Level Slow Start? (Choose four.) A. URLHash B. Least response time C. Least Packets D. Least Connection E. Token F. Least bandwidth G. SRCIPSRCPORTHash Correct Answer: BCDF Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX108886
QUESTION 10 A Citrix Architect has deployed NetScaler Management and Analytics System (NMAS) to monitor a high availability pair of NetScaler VPX devices. The architect needs to deploy automated configuration backup to meet the following requirements: 1. The configuration backup file must be protected using a password. 2. The configuration backup must be performed each day at 8:00 AM GMT. 3. The configuration backup must also be performed if any changes are made in the ns. conf file. 4. Once the transfer is successful, auto-delete the configuration file from the NMAS. Which SNMP trap will trigger the configuration file backup? A. netScalerConfigSave B. sysTotSaveConfigs C. netScalerConfigChange D. sysconfigSave Correct Answer: A Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/netscaler-mas/12/instance-management/how-to-backup-and-restore-usingmas.html#configuring-instance-backup-settings
QUESTION 11 Scenario: A Citrix Architect has implemented two high availability pairs of MPX 5500 and MPX 11500 devices respectively with 12.0.53.13 NC version. The NetScaler devices are set up to handle NetScaler Gateway, Load Balancing, Application Firewall, and Content Switching. The Workspacelab infrastructure is set up to be monitored with NMAS version 12.0.53.13 NC by the Workspacelab administrators. The Workspacelab team wants to implement one more pair of NetScaler MPX 7500 devices with version 12.0.53.13 nc. The Citrix consulting team has assigned the task to implement these NetScaler devices in the infrastructure and set them up to be monitored and managed by NMAS. The following are the requirements that were discussed during the project initiation call: 1. NMAS should be configured to get the infrastructure information under sections such as HDX Insight, WEB Insight, and Security Insight. 2. Configuration on the new MPX devices should be identical to MPX 11500 devices. 3. Configuration changes after the deployment and initial setup should be optimized using NMAS. 4. NMAS should be utilized to configure templates that can be utilized by the Workspacelab team in a future deployment. 5. As per the requirement from the Workspacelab team, NMAS should be store the audited data for only 15 days. Which process should the architect utilize to ensure that the deployment of MPX 11500 devices are optimized and that it is correct, before deploying the devices in production? A. Under Stylebooks; Inbuilt and composite stylebook templates should be utilized prior to deployment. B. Under Stylebooks; Public and composite stylebook templates should be utilized prior to deployment. C. Under Configuration Management; Configuration Audit and Advice should be used prior to deployment. D. Under Configuration jobs; Configuration Audit and Advice should be used prior to deployment. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a NetScaler deployment in Microsoft Azure. An Active-Passive NetScaler VPX pair will provide load balancing for three distinct web applications. The architect has identified the following requirements: 1. Minimize deployment costs where possible. 2. Provide dedicated bandwidth for each web application. 3. Provide a different public IP address for each web application. For this deployment, the architect should configure each NetScaler VPX machine to have ______ network interface(s) and configure IP address by using ________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence). A. 4; Port Address Translation B. 1; Network Address Translation C. 1; Port Address Translation D. 2; Network Address Translation E. 4; Network Address Translation F. 2; Port Address Translation Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which step does a Citrix Architect need to ensure during the Define phase when following the Citrix methodology? A. Testing steps were integrated. B. The project manager agrees with road map timelines. C. A phased rollout was completed. D. Existing networking infrastructure is ready. E. The redundancy deployment decision was made. Correct Answer: E
Lead4Pass Citrix discount code
About lead4pass
Lead4Pass has 8 years of exam experience! A number of professional Citrix exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers! Our goal is to help more people pass the Citrix exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important! In the study, you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
Summarize:
Examscode free to share Citrix 1Y0-440 exam exercise questions, 1Y0-440 pdf, 1Y0-440 exam video! Lead4pass updated exam questions and answers throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam successfully. Select lead4Pass 1Y0-440 to pass the Citrix 1Y0-440 exam “Architecting a Citrix Networking Solution“.
Citrix 1Y0-204 exam ready here! Get the latest 1Y0-204 exam exercise questions and exam dumps pdf for free! 100% pass the exam to select the full Citrix 1Y0-204 dumps the link to get VCE or PDF. All exam questions are updated!
Lead4pass offers the latest Citrix 1Y0-204 Google Drive
Citrix 1Y0-204 Practice testing questions from Youtube
latest updated Citrix 1Y0-204 exam questions and answers
QUESTION 1 A master image that will be used to deploy machines for a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment should have the ___________ installed on it so that ___________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA); users can access resources on the machines B. Citrix Workspace app; users can access resources on the machines C. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA); machines can communicate with the Site database D. Citrix Workspace app; machines can communicate with the Site database Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configured the rewrite policies below:
In which order will the policies be evaluated? A. POL_2, POL_3 B. POL_2 C. POL_2, POL_3, POL_4, POL_1 D. POL_2, POL_3, POL_4 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Scenario: While using Citrix Studio to create a new Delivery Group, a Citrix Administrator does NOT see any machine catalogs listed, but does see an error message. The administrator successfully verified the presence of machine catalogs in the Machine Catalogs node of Citrix Studio. Which issue can cause this to happen? A. The Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) version is lower than 7.15 LTSR. B. There are no unassigned machine catalog machines. C. No machine catalog machines have been started. D. The administrator has insufficient permissions to create the Delivery Group. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is implementing policies in a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site. The administrator is using both Active Directory Organizational Unit (OU) level GPOs and Citrix local-Site policies to maintain the Site. All non-Citrix user and computer policies are implemented through domain- level GPOs. Which policies will be processes first for this Site when a user creates an HDX session? A. Citrix local-Site policies B. Domain-level Gros C. OU level GPOs D. Site-level GPOs Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 A Citrix Administrator has configured the Citrix ADC as a DNS Proxy Server. The administrator executed the following commands on the Citrix ADC using command-line interface:
What will be the effect of executing the above commands? A. Set the AA bit of DNS Request B. Set the AA bit of DNS Response C. Unset the AA bit of DNS Request D. Unset the AA bit of DNS Response Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to add 10 new web servers to an existing server farm. The new servers are configured to serve the same applications and connections and are twice the capacity of the existing servers. The administrator wants to ensure that they are being fully utilized. Currently, in the environment, the default load-balancing method is being used. To ensure that only the 10 new servers are receiving twice the connections of the old servers without changing the load balancing to the rest of the environment, the administrator needs to add a weight of _____________ to the services attached to the _________ servers. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. 50; new B. 2; old C. 50; old D. 2; new Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Scenario: The Help Dest team is troubleshooting a printing issue. Users connect to print servers located in two different datacenters. The print servers host identical drivers and queues. Upon investigation, a Citrix Administrator finds that users can only print to one of the print servers successfully. The Network team informed the administrator that only Citrix-related traffic is allowed between the two Sites. How can the administrator fix this issue? A. Create a Citrix policy that limits the bandwidth consumption used by printing. B. Create a Citrix policy that disables direct connections to the print servers. C. Install Universal printer drivers to all print servers. D. Create a Citrix policy to auto-create printers. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 What two options are limitations of a typical Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) setup? (Choose two.) A. An administrator CANNOT define a backup for a backup Vserver in an active-standby GSLB setup for a given GSLB domain B. Apply spillover policies on a subset of GSLB services and the user CANNOT have a backup for a subset of GSLB services. C. Restrict the selection of a GSLB service from a subset of GSLB services bound to a GSLB virtual server for the given domain. D. Any given GSLB Vserver can load-balance only one FQDN. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy Citrix Virtual Apps. Project requirements dictate that management and maintenance should be minimized for the administrator, while still maintaining control of the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines. Which hosting platform should the administrator choose to meet these requirements? A. Service provider B. On-premises C. Public Cloud-hosted D. Citrix Cloud Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is working on a published application. The network is connected for 100 seconds but is interrupted and applications become unusable. The session then automatically resumes, and the administrator is able to continue working on the application at the same progress point as before the interruption. Which policy is enabled in this scenario? A. Load Management B. Session Reliability C. ICA Keep-Alive D. Auto client reconnect Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is in the process of migrating the existing 7.15 LTSR Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines used on-premises to Citrix Cloud. The administrator has created a new manual machine catalog and Delivery Group in Citrix Cloud and pointed to the existing Device Collection in Citrix Provisioning. The administrator also restarted the VDA machines. What could prevent the VDA machines from registering in Citrix Cloud? A. The VDA master image was NOT updated to communicate with the Cloud Connectors. B. One of the two Cloud Connectors is down and unresponsive. C. The Citrix policies have NOT been migrated to Citrix Cloud. D. The VDA on the master image has NOT been updated to a later version. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is configuring the Citrix Workspace app to allow users to access their applications and desktops. Management requires that users can log on to the environment from any device without having to remember the server address. What should the administrator do to meet these requirements? A. Deploy and configure the Citrix Workspace app using scripts. B. Configure a DNS Service Record for the Citrix Workspace app. C. Allow users to download the configuration from Citrix.com. D. Configure the Citrix Workspace app using a Group Policy Template File. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX133982
QUESTION 13 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator notices an intermittent latency issue within a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment. The issue only involves external users entering through a Citrix Gateway. The administrator reviews Citrix ADC logs identifies the problem as a networking issue, and now wants a more granular view of the data in order to isolate the issue further. Which Citrix tool can the administrator use to view the network information? A. Citrix Diagnostic Toolkit B. HDX Insight C. Citrix Scout D. Configuration Logging Correct Answer: A
Lead4Pass Citrix discount code
About lead4pass
Lead4Pass has 8 years of exam experience! A number of professional Citrix exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers! Our goal is to help more people pass the Citrix exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important! In the study, you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
Summarize:
Examscode free to share Citrix 1Y0-204 exam exercise questions, 1Y0-204 pdf, 1Y0-204 exam video! Lead4pass updated exam questions and answers throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam successfully. Select lead4Pass 1Y0-204 to pass Citrix 1Y0-204 exam “Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Administration“.
The best and most updated NSE6 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing NSE6 exam test, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. https://www.leads4pass.com/nse6.html dumps pdf questions and answers. High quality NSE6 dumps exam training materials in PDF format, 100% success and guarantee to pass NSE6 exam test easily at first try.
QUESTION 1
Which correctly define “Section View” and “Global View” for firewall policies? (Choose two.) NSE6 pdf
A. Section View lists firewall policies primarily by their interface pairs.
B. Section View lists firewall policies primarily by their sequence number.
C. Global View lists firewall policies primarily by their interface pairs.
D. Global View lists firewall policies primarily by their policy sequence number.
E. The ‘any’ interface may be used with Section View.
Answer: AD
QUESTION 2
What protocol cannot be used with the active authentication type?
A. Local
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. RSSO
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
What determines whether a log message is generated or not?
A. Firewall policy setting
B. Log Settings in the GUI
C. ‘config log’ command in the CLI
D. Syslog
E. Webtrends
Answer: A
QUESTION 4 NSE6 dumps
Which of the following are considered log types? (Choose three.)
A. Forward log
B. Traffic log
C. Syslog
D. Event log
E. Security log
Answer: BDE
QUESTION 5
When configuring LDAP on the FortiGate as a remote database for users, what is not a part of the configuration?
A. The name of the attribute that identifies each user (Common Name Identifier).
B. The user account or group element names (user DN).
C. The server secret to allow for remote queries (Primary server secret).
D. The credentials for an LDAP administrator (password).
Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Examine this log entry. What does the log indicate? (Choose three.)
date=2013-12-04 time=09:30:18 logid=0100032001 type=event subtype=system level=information vd=”root” user=”admin” ui=http(192.168.1.112) action=login status=success reason=none profile=”super_admin” msg=”Administrator admin logged in successfully from http(192.168.1.112)” NSE6 pdf
A. In the GUI, the log entry was located under “Log & Report > Event Log > User”.
B. In the GUI, the log entry was located under “Log & Report > Event Log > System”.
C. In the GUI, the log entry was located under “Log & Report > Traffic Log > Local Traffic”.
D. The connection was encrypted.
E. The connection was unencrypted.
F. The IP of the FortiGate interface that “admin” connected to was 192.168.1.112.
G. The IP of the computer that “admin” connected from was 192.168.1.112.
Answer: BEG
QUESTION 7
Where are most of the security events logged? NSE6 dumps
A. Security log
B. Forward Traffic log
C. Event log
D. Alert log
E. Alert Monitoring Console
Answer: C
QUESTION 8
In “diag debug flow” output, you see the message “Allowed by Policy-1: SNAT”. Which is true?
A. The packet matched the topmost policy in the list of firewall policies.
B. The packet matched the firewall policy whose policy ID is 1.
C. The packet matched a firewall policy, which allows the packet and skips UTM checks
D. The policy allowed the packet and applied session NAT.
Answer: B
QUESTION 9
What attributes are always included in a log header? (Choose three.)
A. policyid
B. level
C. user
D. time
E. subtype
F. duration
Answer: BDE
QUESTION 10
What log type would indicate whether a VPN is going up or down?
A. Event log
B. Security log
C. Forward log
D. Syslog
Answer: A
QUESTION 11
When an administrator attempts to manage FortiGate from an IP address that is not a trusted host, what happens?
A. FortiGate will still subject that person’s traffic to firewall policies; it will not bypass them.
B. FortiGate will drop the packets and not respond.
C. FortiGate responds with a block message, indicating that it will not allow that person to log in.
D. FortiGate responds only if the administrator uses a secure protocol. Otherwise, it does not respond
Answer: B
QUESTION 12
A backup file begins with this line: #config-version=FGVM64-5.02-FW-build589-140613:opmode=0:vdom=0:user=admin #conf_file_ver=3881503152630288414 #buildno=0589 #global_vdom=1 Can you restore it to a FortiWiFi 60D? NSE6 dumps
A. Yes
B. Yes, but only if you replace the “#conf_file_ver” line so that it contains the serial number of that specific FortiWiFi 60D.
C. Yes, but only if it is running the same version of FortiOS or a newer compatible version.
D. No
Answer: D
Lead4Pass has updated CompTIA PK0-004 dumps issues! The latest PK0-004 exam questions can help you pass the exam! All questions are corrected to ensure authenticity and effectiveness! Download the Lead4Pass PK0-004 PDF (Total Questions: 437 Q&A PK0-004 Dumps)
CompTIA PK0-004 Practice testing questions from Youtbe
QUESTION 1 A project team is in the process of risk planning. One of the team members identifies a weather-related risk, which may cause delivery delays. Which of the following is the BEST risk response strategy? A. Exploit B. Enhance C. Mitigate D. Communicate Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A company\\’s management team is in a meeting to review all the products and services delivered in the first quarter of the year for profitability. They are requesting information on payback period, return on investment, and total cost of ownership. The project manager is checking the project repository for available documentation. In which of the following documents is the project manager MOST likely to find the required information? A. Business case B. Project charter C. Risk management plan D. Scope of work Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A project team is not delivering their tasks in a timely manner. Additionally, tasks are being reworked because requirements continue to be identified as work packages are being delivered. Which of the following are NOST likely missing from the project? (Select two.) A. Project charter B. Organizational chart C. Scope document D. Status report E. Business case F. Project plan Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 4 A company has hired a new project manager. The PMO has briefed the new project manager on the following expected responsibilities for projects: Coordinate project schedule Manage to the triple constraint Provide performance feedback to team members\\’ managers Which of the following types of organizational structures did the new project manager MOST likely join? A. Balanced matrix B. Strong matrix C. Functional D. Projectized Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which of the following are the roles involved in a Scrum project? A. Scrum master, development team, quality coach B. Scrum master, business analyst, product owner C. Scrum master, product owner, development team D. Scrum master, project sponsor, business analyst Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Due to a new government regulation, a project change is required. The project manager evaluates the change and realizes a representative from the legal department will need to approve the change as well. The project manager should: A. follow the change process flow and notify the legal department after the change is implemented. B. extend a formal invitation to the legal department representative to join the CCB. C. hold a separate meeting with the legal department representative and ask for approval. D. notify the legal department representative in the event of an upcoming audit. Correct Answer: B References: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 294
QUESTION 7 A project team is defining detailed risks. Which of the following project phases is taking place? A. Initiation B. Monitor and control C. Execution D. Planning Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A governance committee has just approved a new project. The project scheduler is now developing the project schedule. Which of the following activities should be done FIRST? A. Add durations. B. Add the start and finish dates C. Add tasks. D. Add resources. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which of the following charts is a graphical representation of the causes of a specific event? A. Histogram B. Scatter C. Fishbone D. Gantt Correct Answer: C A fishbone diagram is a cause-and-effect diagram that shows the relationship between the effects of problems and their causes. This diagram depicts every potential cause of a problem and the effect that each proposed solution will have on the problem.
QUESTION 10 At a weekly project team meeting, it is apparent the project is over budget. The project manager needs to determine the reason for this issue. Which of the following documents should MOST likely be analyzed to obtain the answer? A. Project charter, organization chart, scope statement, and issue log B. Dashboard information, action items, project schedule, and status report C. Project management plan, scope statement, communication plan, and meeting agendas D. Project schedule, project management plan, communication plan, and issue log Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 A project team is overseeing the installation of a new reptile habitat at the local zoo. During execution, zoo personnel decides to house a different type of reptile that will require a different temperature range than the capacity of the installed system. The modification has been approved. Which of the following constraints are MOST likely to be affected? (Choose two.) A. Quality because the existing system is now outside the threshold. B. Requirements because this is a change to initial scope. C. Cost because replacing the system incurs additional expense. D. Schedule because this was an unscheduled task and will impact the timeline. E. Stakeholders because they will need to understand the modification and provide buy-in. Correct Answer: CD References: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 293
QUESTION 12 Which of the following is described as placing responsibility for addressing the potential effects of an uncertain future event on an entity outside the organization? A. Risk avoidance:e B. Risk transfer C. Risk exploitation D. Risk mitigation Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 An active project has a CPI of 0.92. Which of the following can be determined? A. The project is currently over budget. B. The project has a budget surplus. C. The project is ahead of schedule. D. The project is behind schedule. Correct Answer: A Reference http://smallbusiness.chron.com/project-management-cpi-numbers-mean-35541.html
Latest Lead4Pass CompTIA dumps Discount Code 2020
About The Lead4Pass Dumps Advantage
Lead4Pass has 7 years of exam experience! A number of professional CompTIA exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers! Our goal is to help more people pass the CompTIA exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important! In the study you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
Summarize:
This blog shares the latest CompTIA PK0-004 exam dumps, PK0-004 exam questions and answers! PK0-004 pdf, PK0-004 exam video! You can also practice the test online! Lead4pass is the industry leader! Select Lead4Pass PK0-004 exams Pass CompTIA PK0-004 exams “CompTIA Project +”. Help you successfully pass the PK0-004 exam.
Lead4Pass has updated CompTIA N10-007 dumps issues! The latest N10-007 exam questions can help you pass the exam! All questions are corrected to ensure authenticity and effectiveness! Download the Lead4Pass N10-007 dump (Total Questions: 924 Q&A N10-007 Dumps)
CompTIA N10-007 Practice testing questions from Youtbe
QUESTION 1 Which of the following are characteristics of jumbo frames? (Choose two.) A. Commonly used on SAN B. MTU size greater than 1500 C. MTU size greater than 10000 D. Commonly used on IaaS E. MTU size greater than 12000 Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2 Which of the following policies would be the MOST useful for defining the proper procedures when an employee is terminated abruptly? A. Offboarding B. Remote access C. AUP D. Incident response E. DLP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 The IT manager at a small firm is in the process of renegotiating an SLA with the organization\\’s ISP. As part of the agreement, the organization will agree to a dynamic bandwidth plan to provide 150Mbps of bandwidth. However, if the ISP determines that a host on the organization\\’s internal network produces malicious traffic, the ISP reserves the right to reduce available bandwidth to 1.5 Mbps. Which of the following policies is being agreed to in the SLA? A. Session hijacking B. Blocking C. Throttling D. Data usage limits E. Bandwidth quotasf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A network technician is installing a new wireless network for a client. The client has experienced issues with other building tenants connecting to the wireless network and utilizing the bandwidth. The client wants to prevent this from happening by using certificate-based authentication. Which of the following technologies should the network administrator implement? A. WPA-PSK B. EAP-TLS C. AES-CCMP D. WEP-TKIP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Given the table below:
Which of the following addresses can Host E send a packet to that will reach Hosts C and D, but not Hosts A and B? A. 192.168.5.1 B. 192.168.11.0 C. 192.168.11.255 D. 192.168.255.255 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 A new user is reporting connectivity issues. Zach, the network technician, notices that there is no link light on the user\\’s NIC. Which of the following would be used to verify the wiring back to the patch panel? A. Butt set B. Cable certifier C. Toner probe D. Snips Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Users on a LAN segment are reporting a loss of connectivity to network services. The client PCs have been assigned with 169.254.X.X IP addresses. Which of the following IP address schemas is being utilized? A. Private IP B. Static IP C. APIPA D. Loopback Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 A user calls the help desk for assistance with setting up a new SOHO router. The user has three employees who all have laptops that need to connect to the wireless network. The users need to have firewall rules allowing access to an internal server, but cannot be configured with static IP addresses. Which of the following BEST describes what the technician should implement? A. CNAME record in the users\\’ dynamic DNS accounts B. Additional lease time for the laptop computers C. IP helper relay system for configuration hops D. DHCP reservation for the laptops\\’ MACs Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 A network technician is troubleshooting a problem with a user\\’s client-to-site VPN connection. The user is unable to establish a connection to the server, but the error message that appears on the screen does not contain useful information. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to troubleshoot the issue? A. Reconfigure the user\\’s VPN connection in the router to fix profile corruption. B. Inform the user that provisioning sometimes fails and the connection needs to be attempted again. C. Review the logs in the VPN client to check for any informational messages. D. Verify the system has the latest OS patches installed. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 A network administrator is downloading a large patch that will be uploaded to several enterprise switches simultaneously during the day\\’s upgrade cycle. Which of the following should the administrator do to help ensure the upgrade process will be less likely to cause problems with the switches? A. Confirm the patch\\’s MD5 hash prior to the upgrade. B. Schedule the switches to reboot after an appropriate amount of time. C. Download each switch\\’s current configuration before the upgrade. D. Utilize FTP rather than TFTP to upload the patch. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which of the following will prevent switching loops by selectively shutting down switch ports? A. RIP B. IGP C. STP D. VLAN Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which of the following will listen on the line to ensure there is no traffic transmitting and implement a back-off timer if a collision occurs? A. CSMA/CD B. CSMA/CA C. MPLS D. OSPF Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 A second router was installed on a network to be used as a backup for the primary router that works as a gateway. The infrastructure team does not want to change the IP address of the gateway on the devices. Which of the following network components should be used in this scenario? A. Loopback IP B. Virtual IP C. Reserved IP D. Public Correct Answer: B
Latest Lead4Pass CompTIA dumps Discount Code 2020
About The Lead4Pass Dumps Advantage
Lead4Pass has 7 years of exam experience! A number of professional CompTIA exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers! Our goal is to help more people pass the CompTIA exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important! In the study you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
Summarize:
This blog shares the latest CompTIA N10-007 exam dumps, N10-007 exam questions, and answers! N10-007 pdf, N10-007 exam video! You can also practice the test online! Lead4pass is the industry leader! Select Lead4Pass N10-007 exams Pass CompTIA N10-007 exams “CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam”. Help you successfully pass the N10-007 exam.
What are the best online course and practice tests set to prepare for Microsoft 365 Certification (MS-100 exam, MS-200 exam, MS-201 exam, MS-500 exam)? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Microsoft expert.) You can get free Microsoft exam practice test questions here. Or choose: https://www.leads4pass.com/role-based.html Study hard to pass the exam easily!
Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.
Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, or Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell.
Skills measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured in the document below are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
Design and implement Microsoft 365 services (25-30%)
Manage user identity and roles (35-40%)
Manage access and authentication (20-25%)
Plan Office 365 workloads and applications (10-15%)
Latest updates Microsoft MS-100 exam practice questions(1-10)
QUESTION 1
You need to add the custom domain names to Office 365 to support the planned changes as quickly as possible. What
should you create to verify the domain names successfully?
A. three alias (CNAME) records
B. one text (TXT) record
C. one alias (CNAME) record
D. three text (TXT) records
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You need to assign User2 the required roles to meet the security requirements.
Solution: From the Office 365 admin center, you assign User2 the Security Reader role. From the Exchange admin
center, you assign User2 the Compliance Management role.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.
You add an app named App1 to the enterprise applications in contoso.com.
Your company has offices in several cities and 100,000 users.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You purchase Microsoft 365 and plan to deploy several Microsoft 365 services.
You are evaluating the implementation of pass-through authentication and seamless SSO. Azure AD Connect will NOT
be in staging mode.
You need to identify the redundancy limits for the planned implementation.
What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 Your company has a main office and 20 branch offices in North America and Europe. Each branch office connects to the main office by using a WAN link. All the offices connect to the Internet and resolve external host names by using the main office connections. You plan to deploy Microsoft 365 and to implement a direct Internet connection in each office. You need to recommend a change to the infrastructure to provide the quickest possible access to Microsoft 365 services. What is the best recommendation to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. For all the client computers in the branch offices, modify the MTU setting by using a Group Policy object (GPO). B. In each branch office, deploy a proxy server that has user authentication enabled. C. In each branch office, deploy a firewall that has packet inspection enabled. D. In each branch office, configure name resolution so that all external hosts are redirected to public DNS servers directly. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Your company has on-premises servers and a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. Several months ago, the Azure AD Connect Health agent was installed on all the servers. You review the health status of all the servers regularly. Recently, you attempted to view the health status of a server named Server1 and discovered that the server is NOT listed on the Azure Active Directory Connect Servers list. You suspect that another administrator removed Server1 from the list. You need to ensure that you can view the health status of Server1. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Register-AzureADConnectHealthSyncAgent cmdlet. B. From Azure Cloud shell, run the Connect-AzureAD cmdlet. C. From Server1, change the Azure AD Connect Health services Startup type to Automatic (Delayed Start). D. From Server1, change the Azure AD Connect Health services Startup type to Automatic. E. From Server1, reinstall the Azure AD Connect Health agent. Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 7 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You need to assign User2 the required roles to meet the security requirements. Solution: From the Office 365 admin center, you assign User2 the Security Administrator role. From the Exchange admin center, you add User2 to the View-Only Organization Management role. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Which role should you assign to User1? A. Security Administrator B. Records Management C. Security Reader D. Hygiene Management Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.local. The forest contains 500 users and uses adatum.com as a UPN suffix. You deploy a Microsoft 365 tenant. You implement directory synchronization and sync only 50 support users. You discover that five of the synchronized users have usernames that use a UPN suffix of onmicrosoft.com. You need to ensure that all synchronized identities retain the UPN set in their on-premises user account. What should you do? A. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, add adatum.com as a custom domain name. B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-ADDomain ?llowedDNSSuffixes adatum.com command. C. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the UPN suffix of the five user accounts. D. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, add adatum.local as a custom domain name. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. You plan to move several archived PST files to Microsoft Exchange Online mailboxes. You need to create an import job for the PST files. Which three actions should you perform before you create the import job? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Create a Microsoft Azure Storage account. B. From Security and Compliance, retrieve the SAS key. C. Run azcopy.exe to copy the PST files to Microsoft Azure Storage D. Use Microsoft Azure Storage Explorer to copy the PST files to Azure Storage. E. Create a PST import mapping file. Correct Answer: BCE References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/use-network-upload-to-import-pst-files
Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.
Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with Microsoft 365 applications.
Skills measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured in the document below are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
Manage modern messaging infrastructure (45-50%)
Manage mail flow topology (35-40%)
Manage recipients and devices (15-20%)
Latest updates Microsoft MS-200 exam practice questions (1-10)
QUESTION 1 Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two Active Directory sites named Site1 and Site2. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 has three member servers in each site. You need to prevent users from Site1 from sending email messages larger than 5 MB to the mailboxes in Site2. What should you do? A. Modify the properties of the Active Directory site link. B. From Site1, create a custom Send connector, and then modify the address space. C. From Site2, create a custom Receive connector, and then modify the remote IP address range. D. Modify the properties of DAG1. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 You need to recommend a load balancing solution for the client connections that must be created to meet the disaster recovery requirements. What should you recommend? A. Deploy a Layer 7 load balancing solution. B. Deploy a Layer 4 load balancing solution. C. Implement Network Load Balancing (NLB) on each Exchange server. D. Implement DNS load balancing for all the Exchange-related DNS records and implement round robin for DNS name resolution. Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/architecture/client-access/load-balancing?view=exchserver-2019
QUESTION 3 DRAG DROP You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains two Mailbox servers as shown in the following table.
EX01 fails. You do not know how long it will take to recover EX01. You need to provide all affected users with the ability to send and receive email as quickly as possible. How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT After you deploy the Exchange organization, you run the Get-ActiveSyncDeviceAccessRule cmdlet, and you receive the following output.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
The rule is incorrectly configured so nothing will be blocked. The QueryString parameter specifies the device identifier that\\’s used by the rule, not the software.
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server named EX01. EX01 has the default Receive connectors. EX01 receives Internet email on port 25 from an appliance in the company\\’s perimeter network. The company has an application named App1 that can only send email on port 25. The application administrator requests that you enable App1 to route email through EX01 for delivery. You need to ensure that EX01 only accepts email from the appliance and App1. Solution: You create a new remote domain and set the domain name to App1. You create a new delivery agent connector and set the IsScopedConnector property to $true. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 HOTSPOT You need to recommend a solution for the Audits and Notes folders. What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 7 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Online subscription that contains the groups shown in the following table.
You have the recipients shown in the following table.
The groups contain the members shown in the following table.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 8 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server named EX01. EX01 has the default Receive connectors. EX01 receives Internet email on port 25 from an appliance in the company\\’s perimeter network. The company has an application named App1 that can only send email on port 25. The application administrator requests that you enable App1 to route email through EX01 for delivery. You need to ensure that EX01 only accepts email from the appliance and App1. Solution: You add a second IP address to EX01. You create a new linked connector named App1 EX01. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/mail-routing/mail-routing?view=exchserver-2019
QUESTION 9 HOTSPOT A user named User1 left the organization 10 days ago. You need to purge all the email data of User1. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 10 You are deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 to two data centers. You need to protect all mailbox content against database corruption. The solution must minimize the recovery time objective (RTO) and the recovery point objective (RPO). What is the best way to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. a recovery database B. a lagged database copy C. PST files Correct Answer: B
Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.
Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with Microsoft 365 applications.
Skills measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured in the document below are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (35-40%)
Secure the messaging environment (40-45%)
Manage organizational settings (15-20%)
Latest updates Microsoft MS-201 exam practice questions (1-10)
QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that uses a domain named contoso.com. You need to ensure that when a new user mailbox is created, the email address of the mailbox uses the format shown in the following table.
How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 2 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You plan to enable Hybrid Modern Authentication (HMA). You run the Get-MapiVirtualDirectory cmdlet and receive the output shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 3 Case Study : Litware,Inc. Case Study Overview Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe. PhysicalLocations Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome. Each branch office has its own compliance officer. ExistingEnvironment The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU) in an OU named Offices in Active Directory. Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels, RegionalAdmins_Munich, RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome. NetworkInfrastructure Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office. All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance. Each office has the following servers and client computers: One reverse proxy appliance One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured. Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is configured to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office. Requirements Planned Changes Litware plans to implement the following changes: Implement calendar sharing to partner companies. Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the item must be available. TechnicalRequirements Litware identifies the following technical requirements: Minimize administrative effort. Use the principle of least privilege. Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure that all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement. Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items. Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to the Junk Email folder. Problemstatements The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow. Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are open. You need to implement a solution that meets the technical requirements for the retention of junk email, sent items, and deleted items. What is the minimum number of retention policies and retention tags you should use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains the Mailbox servers shown in the following table.
The organization contains the mailboxes shown in the following table.
You create the public folder mailboxes shown in the following table.
You set the DefaultPublicFolderMailbox property of each user mailbox to the public folder mailbox closest to the user. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has the mailboxes shown in the following table.
You have the distribution groups shown in the following table.
Email messages sent within the organization are shown in the following table.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statements is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 6 Overview General Overview Contoso, Ltd. is a national freight company in the United States. The company has 15,000 employees. PhysicalLocations Contoso has a main office in Houston and 10 branch offices that each contains 1,000 employees. ExistingEnvironment Active Directory and Microsoft Exchange Server Environments The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains one root domain named contoso.com and 10 child domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2019. The forest has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) deployed. You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365. There are 2,000 user mailboxes in Exchange Online. Each office contains two domain controllers and two Mailbox servers. the main office also contains an Edge transport server. The organization contains 100 public folders. The folders contain 80 GB of content. All email messages sent to contoso.com are delivered to Exchange Online. All messages sent to onpremises mailboxes are routed through the Edge Transport server. Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) is enabled and configured for the Office 365 tenant. NetworkInfrastructure Each office connects directly to the Internet by using a local connection. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Requirements Planned Changes Contoso plans to implement the following changes: 1. or all new users in the on-premises organization, provide an email address that uses the value of the Last Name attribute and the first two letters of the First Name attribute as a prefix. 2. ecommission the public folders and replace the folders with a Microsoft 265 solution that maintains web access to the content. Technical Requirements Contoso identifies the following technical requirements: 1. All email messages sent from a SMTP domain named adatum.com must never be identified as spam. 2. Any solution to replace the public folders must include the ability to collaborate with shared calendars. Security Requirements Contoso identifies the following security requirements: 1. The principle of least privilege must be applied to all users and permissions. 2. All email messages sent from an SMTP domain named com to contoso.com must be encrypted. 3. All users must be protected from accessing unsecure websites when they click on URLs embedded in email messages. 4. If a user attempts to send an email message to a distribution group that contains more than 15 members by using Outlook, the user must receive a warning before sending the message. Problemstatements Recently, a user named HelpdeskUser1 erroneously created several mailboxes. Helpdesk1user1 is a member of the Recipient Management management role group. Users who have a mailbox in office 365 report that it takes a long time for email messages containing attachments to be delivered. Exhibit
HOTSPOT You need to configure the environment to support the planned changes for email addresses. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 7 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains two Mailbox servers named MBX1 and MBX2. The company has the departments shown in the following table.
From the on-premises organization, outbound email is sent directly to the internet by using DNS lookups. You are informed that some sales department users send email messages that are identified as spam. You need to automatically block the sales department users from repeatedly sending spam. Solution: You migrate all the mailboxes of the sales department to Exchange Online. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You need to prevent credit card information from being emailed outside of the organization. Users must be informed of any potential breaches before sending email. What should you create? A. a journal rule B. a retention policy C. a retention tag D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies
QUESTION 9 Case Study : Litware,Inc. Case Study Overview Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe. PhysicalLocations Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome. Each branch office has its own compliance officer. ExistingEnvironment The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU) in an OU named Offices in Active Directory. Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels, RegionalAdmins_Munich, RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome. NetworkInfrastructure Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office. All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance. Each office has the following servers and client computers: One reverse proxy appliance One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured. Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is configured to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office. Requirements Planned Changes Litware plans to implement the following changes: Implement calendar sharing to partner companies. Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the item must be available. TechnicalRequirements Litware identifies the following technical requirements: Minimize administrative effort. Use the principle of least privilege. Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure that all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement. Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items. Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to the Junk Email folder. Problemstatements The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow. Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are open. You need to resolve the issue for the customer service department users. What should you modify? A. a transport rule B. the Send connector to the Internet C. the tarpit interval D. the global throttling policy Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 HOTSPOT You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization and a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you open Data migration as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Candidates for this exam implement, manage, and monitor security and compliance solutions for Microsoft 365 and hybrid environments. The Microsoft 365 Security Administrator proactively secures Microsoft 365 enterprise environments, responds to threats, performs investigations, and enforces data governance. The Microsoft 365 Security Administrator collaborates with the Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator, business stakeholders, and other workload administrators to plan and implement security strategies and ensures that the solutions comply with the policies and regulations of the organization.
Candidates for this exam are familiar with Microsoft 365 workloads and have strong skills and experience with identity protection, information protection, threat protection, security management, and data governance. This role focuses on the Microsoft 365 environment and includes hybrid environments.
Skills measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured in the document below are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
Implement and manage identity and access (30-35%)
Implement and manage threat protection (20-25%)
Implement and manage information protection (15-20%)
Manage governance and compliance features in Microsoft 365 (25-30%)
Latest updates Microsoft MS-500 exam practice questions (1-10)
QUESTION 1 You are evaluating which finance department users will be prompted for Azure MFA credentials. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 What should User6 use to meet the technical requirements? A. Supervision in the Security and Compliance admin center B. Service requests in the Microsoft 365 admin center C. Security and privacy in the Microsoft 365 admin center D. Data subject requests in the Security and Compliance admin center Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. A customer requests that you provide her with all documents that reference her by name. You need to provide the customer with a copy of the content. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You are creating a retention policy named Retention1 as shown in the following exhibit.
You apply Retention1 to SharePoint sites and OneDrive accounts.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 Which IP address space should you include in the MFA configuration? A. 131.107.83.0/28 B. 192.168.16.0/20 C. 172.16.0.0/24 D. 192.168.0.0/20 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. Some users access Microsoft SharePoint Online from unmanaged devices. You need to prevent the users from downloading, printing, and synching files. What should you do? A. Run the Set-SPODataConnectionSetting cmdlet and specify the AssignmentCollection parameter B. From the SharePoint admin center, configure the Access control settings C. From the Microsoft Azure portal, create an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Identity Protection sign-in risk policy D. From the Microsoft Azure portal, create an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) conditional access policy Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have a site collection named SiteCollection1 that contains a site named Site2. Site2 contains a document library named Customers. Customers contains a document named Litware.docx. You need to remove Litware.docx permanently. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9 Your company uses Microsoft Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). You enable the delayed deployment of updates for an Azure ATP sensor named Sensor1. How long after the Azure ATP cloud service is updated will Sensor1 be updated? A. 7 days B. 24 hours C. 1 hour D. 48 hours E. 12 hours Correct Answer: B Note: The delay period was 24 hours. In ATP release 2.62, the 24 hour delay period has been increased to 72 hours.
QUESTION 10 Which role should you assign to User1? A. Global administrator B. User administrator C. Privileged role administrator D. Security administrator Correct Answer: C
Lead4pass employs the most authoritative exam specialists from Microsoft, Cisco, CompTIA, Oracle, Microsoft, etc. We update exam data throughout the year. Highest pass rate! We have a large user base. We are an industry leader! Choose Lead4Pass to pass the exam with ease!
Summarize:
It’s not easy to pass the Microsoft exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. https://www.leads4pass.com/role-based.html provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.
Passing the first exam with Microsoft 70-744 is not an easy task! Follow Examscode Microsoft Blog! Share the latest and most effective exam tips for free.
Examscode shares the latest exam questions and answers throughout the year.
Microsoft 70-744 exam “Securing Windows Server 2016”. Examscode shares the latest Microsoft 70-744 exam pdf, 70-744 exam practice questions, the latest questions to help you improve your exam pass rate!
We prepared the Microsoft 70-744 highest exam pass secret, 70-744 Dumps. https://www.leads4pass.com/70-744.html The latest and most complete Microsoft 70-744 exam dump.
Candidates for this exam secure Windows Server 2016 environments. Candidates are familiar with the methods and technologies used to harden server environments and secure virtual machine infrastructures using Shielded and encryption-supported virtual machines and Guarded Fabric.
Candidates manage the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS).
Candidates should also be able to use threat detection solutions such as auditing access, implementing Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA), deploying Operations Management Suite (OMS) solutions, and identifying solutions for specific workloads.
Skills measured Microsoft 2020
Implement Server Hardening Solutions (25-30%)
Secure a Virtualization Infrastructure (5-10%)
Secure a Network Infrastructure (10-15%)
Manage Privileged Identities (25-30%)
Implement Threat Detection Solutions (15-20%)
Implement Workload-Specific Security (5-10%)
Latest Updates Microsoft 70-744 Exam Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1
You have a Host Guardian Service (HGS) and a guarded host. You have a VHDX file that contains an image of Windows Server 2016. You need to provision a virtual machine by using a shielded template. Which three files should you create? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. a TPM baseline policy file B. a TPM identifier file C. a shielding data .pdk file D. a signature for the .vhdx file E. an unattended.xml file
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You deploy Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA) to Server 1. you need to move the ATA database to a different folder. A. Config.json B. Config.xml C. Mongod.cfg D. Web.config
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10 and are domain members. All laptops are protected by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker). You have an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 that contains the computer accounts of application servers. An OU named OU2 contains the computer accounts of computers in the marketing department. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to OU1. A GPO named GP2 is linked to OU2. All computers receive updates from Server1. You create an update rule named Update1. You need to ensure that AppLocker rules will apply to the marketing department computers. What should you do? A. From the properties of OU2, modify the Security settings. B. In GP2, configure the Startup type for the Application Identity service. C. From the properties of OU2, modify the COM+ partition Set D. In GP2, configure the Startup type for the Application Management service.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in these sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You deploy Windows Server 2016 to a server named Server1. You need to ensure that you can run Windows Containers on Server1. Solution: On Server1, you enable the Containers feature, and then you restart the server. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a generation 2 virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows 10. You need to ensure that you can turn on BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) for drive C: on VM1. What should you do? A. From Server1, install the BitLocker feature. B. From Server1, enable nested virtualization for VM1. C. From VM1, configure the Require additional authentication at startup Group Policy setting. D. From VM1, configure the Enforce drive encryption type on fixed data drives the Group Policy setting.
Correct Answer: C
https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/6229/how-to-use-bitlocker-on-drives-without-tpm/If you don\’t use TPM for protecting a drive, there is no such Virtual TPM or VM Generation, or VM Configurationversion requirement, you can even use Bitlockerwithout TPM Protector with earlier versions of Windows. How to Use BitLocker Without a TPMYou can bypass this limitation through a Group Policy change. If your PC is joined to a business or school domain, you can\’t change the Group Policy setting yourself. Group policy is configured centrally by your network administrator. To open the Local Group Policy Editor, press Windows+R on your keyboard, type “gpedit.msc” into the Rundialog box, and press Enter.Navigate to Local Computer Policy > Computer Configuration > Administrative Templates > WindowsComponents BitLocker Drive Encryption > OperatingSystem Drives in the left pane.
Double-click the “Require additional authentication at startup” option in the right pane.
Select “Enabled” at the top of the window, and ensure the “Allow BitLocker without a compatible TPM (requires a password or a startup key on a USB flash drive)” checkbox is enabled here. Click “OK” to save your changes. You can now close the Group Policy Editor window. Your change takes effect immediately–you don\’t even need to reboot.
QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two global groups named Group1 and Group2. A user named User1 is a member of Group1 You have an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 that contains the computer accounts of computers that contain sensitive data. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. OU1 contains a computer account named Computer1. GPO1 has the User Rights Assignment configured as shown in the following table.
You need to prevent User1 from signing in to Computer1. What should you do? A. From Default Domain Policy, modify the Allow log on local user right B. On Computer1, modify the Deny log on locally user right. C. From Default Domain Policy, modify the Deny log on local user right D. Remove User1 to Group2.
Correct Answer: D
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc957048.aspx”Deny log on locally”Computer Configuration\Windows Settings\Security Settings\Local Policies\User Rights AssignmentDetermines which users are prevented from logging on at the computer. This policy setting supersedes the Allow Log on local policy setting if an account is subject to both policies. Therefore, adding User1 to Group2 will let User1 inherit both policies, and then prevent User1 to sign in toComputer1.
QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You run the Windows PowerShell commands as shown in the following exhibit. Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a user named User1 and a computer named Computer1. Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT) is installed on Computer1. You need to add User1 as a data recovery agent in the domain. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers that run Windows Server 2016. You enable Remote Credential Guard on a server named Server1. You have an administrative computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 is configured to require Remote Credential Guard. You sign in to Computer1 as Contoso\User1. You need to establish a Remote Desktop session to Server1 as Contoso\ServerAdmin1. What should you do first? A. Install the Universal Windows Platform (UWP) Remote Desktop application B. Turn on virtualization-based security C. Run the mstsc.exe /remote guard D. Sign in to Computer1 as Contoso\ServerAdmin1
Correct Answer: D
When Computer1 is configured to require Remote Credential Guard, you cannot use NTLM authentication to specify (or impersonate) another user account when connecting to Server1. Therefore, you have to sign in to Computer1 as “ServerAdmin1” and use Kerberos for authenticating to RDP server “Server1” when Remote Credential Guard is required.
QUESTION 10
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10 and are domain members. All laptops are protected by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).You have an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 that contains the computer accounts of application servers. An OU named OU2 contains the computer accounts of the computers in the marketing department. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to OU1. A GPO named GP2 is linked to OU2. All computers receive updates from Server1. You create an update rule named Update1. You need to ensure that you can view Windows PowerShell code that was generated dynamically and executed on the computers in OU1. What would you configure in GP1? A. Object Access\Audit Application Generated from the advanced audit policy B. Turn on PowerShell Script Block Logging from the PowerShell settings C. Turn on Module Logging from the PowerShell settings D. Object Access\Audit Other Object Access Events from the advanced audit policy
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/wmf/5.0/audit_scriptWhile Windows PowerShell already has the LogPipelineExecutionDetails Group Policy setting to log the invocation of cmdlets, PowerShell\’s scripting language has plenty of features that you might want to log and/or audit. The new Detailed Script Tracing feature lets you enable detailed tracking and analysis of Windows PowerShell scripting use on a system. After you enable detailed script tracing, Windows PowerShell logs all script blocks to the ETW event log, Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational. If a script block creates another script block (for example, a script that calls the Invoke-Expression cmdlet on a string), that resulting script block is logged as well. Logging of these events can be enabled through the Turn on PowerShell Script Block Logging Group Policysetting (in Administrative Templates -> WindowsComponents -> Windows PowerShell).
QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory named contoso.com. The domain contains the computers configured as shown in the following table.
Server1, Computer1, and Computer2 have the connection security rules configured as shown in follow:
When Computer1 accesses Share1, SMB encryption will be used: YES When Computer2 accesses Share1, SMB encryption will be used: YES When Server1 accesses a shared folder on Computer1, IPsec encryption will be used: NO The shared folder “Share1” is configured with “EncryptData: True”, no matter which network the client resides, SMB 3 communication will be encrypted. When Server1 access Computer1 over the network, the original packet L3 IP Header is as follow -172.16.1.30? gt; 172.16.10.60These traffic does not match the enabled IPSec rule “Rule2” nor “Rule3”, and the only matching rule “Rule1” is disabled. So, no IPsec encryption will be achieved.
QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to implement encryption on a file server named Server1. Server1 has TPM 2.0 and uses Secure Boot Server1 has the volumes configured as shown in the
following table. You need to encrypt the contents of volumes C and G. The solution must use the highest level of security possible. What should you use to encrypt the contents of each volume? To answer, drag the appropriate encryption options to the correct volumes. Each encryption option may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. Select and Place:
QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.Server1 has a shared folder named Share1. You plan to create a subfolder in Share1 for each domain user. You need to limit each user to use 100 MB of data in their respective subfolder. The solution must enable the users to be notified when they use 80 percent of the available space in the subfolder. Which tool should you use? A. File Explorer B. Shared Folders C. Server Manager D. Disk Management E. Storage Explorer F. Computer Management G. System Configuration H. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)
Correct Answer: H
Share lead4Pass Microsoft 70-744 Coupon codes 2020
About Lead4Pass
Lead4Pass collaborates with several free blogs to share the latest effective exam exercise questions to help more people easily improve their exam skills and experience. leads4pass.com available(the most accurate IT exam study materials, 100% money back guarantee, professional assistant, 100% Reliable!)
Microsoft 70-744 Exam Tips Summary:
Microsoft 70-744 Exam Tips Summary: ExamsCode freely shares Microsoft 70-744 exam dumps, 70-744 exam practice questions, 70-744 youtube video learning, 70-744 pdf, and official updates hope to help you successfully pass the exam!